If an Indian company is providing services to its Associated Enterprise(AE) in USA and the AE is using these services further to complete its contractual obligation to a client based in USA.

The AE adds 4% profit margin to what the Indian company charges from it and provides the service to client at such price.

Will the transfer price on the Indian company be such sale price of service inclusive of 4% profit margin set by AE or without it.

Ex:

Supply price by Indian Co. to AE =Rs. 100

Profit Margin 4% =Rs. 4

Value of service charged =Rs. 104
from client

Will the transfer price for the Indian company be Rs. 100 or Rs. 104?

Please reply. It's very urgent.

I have completed my article ship under my present principal before one year.

I have joined this office after taking transfer from my old principal. At my present principal office there is a rule to first serve on probation basis for three months and after that he recruits as an article assistant for article ship. I have also followed the same procedure for the period of three months.

However as per the information provided by the member of institute my article ship period is extended for 89 days due to excess leave. I have still not received any letter for communication regarding the matter.

Now I would like to know from you that may I take stand of clause 2 of regulation 59 of Training Guidelines and whether I can utilize the probation period that I have served for three month for set off of the excess leave or not. It is not possible for me to join again the article ship.

Helllooo everyone,

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