If I transfer some funds to my spouse, and if the spouse invests it in some way, then the return is still taxable in my hands. However, I have been told that if that fund changes the shape and form twice, then after that clubbing would not apply. Can someone confirm if this is correct and which section of Income Tax Act supports this?

And also in what way can this be executed - for example if using the demat account, buying and selling publicly listed shares twice within few days can achieve this? Or does it need to be more complex, for example buying something physical like gold, then silver and then bringing it back in cash form?

I am looking to do this to distribute funds equally between me and spouse with a goal to get maximum benefit of tax free allowances for an individual.

Hi,
I have filed Original Return for FY 2023-24 under ITR-1 Old Regime. Can I file Updated Return for FY 2023-24 under ITR-2 Old Regime as I need to declare Foreign Assets?

Now gst on food product in 5%. we sale goods in 2023 at gst rate of 12% and this goods has come to us as a return in 2026. so at what gst rate we should book the return in our system.

Can a partnership firm be a partner in a private limited company?
If yes, whose documents (like Aadhar) are required for GST registration?

As per Rule 138 of the GST, it is understood that an e-way bill is not required when goods are transported by a non-motorised conveyance.
A friend informed me that during a separate inquiry, a GST officer reviewed certain transactions of his company and observed that e-way bills had not been generated for a few invoices. He clarified that the goods were dispatched via hand carts (the distance was also short), and therefore, e-way bills were not applicable. The value per invoice was approximately ₹1–1.5 lakhs, which can reasonably be transported through such means, with no indication of any irregularity.
However, the officer maintained that, as per the rules, at least Part A of the e-way bill must be generated. His consultant also concurred with this view. Can you please share your expert opinion on this ?

Dear Sir/Madam,

I am a registered two-wheeler dealer in Haryana. We plan to transport around 50 vehicles (Honda Activa) to a multibrand outlet in Delhi for display/sales purposes. This movement is not a sale, and invoices will be issued only at the time of actual sale to customers from Haryana.

Kindly advise on:

* The correct GST procedure for such inter-state movement without sale
* Requirement and basis of e-way bill (e.g., delivery challan)
* Necessary documents to carry during transit
* Any compliance risks or conditions to be aware of

Looking forward to your guidance.

Regards,
VAIBHAV

I have Rs.80000/- Input (CGST & SGST) lying unused in Electronic credit ledger. The balance remain unused from 2017 -2018 onwards. Can I use to set off the liability ( CGST & SGST) for the FY 2025-2026. Pls advice

Sir,
New income tax act 2025 form 25 applicable for professional all or small tax payers f.y.25-26 compulsory or not

Hello all
Pl guide me how much salary we can give to employees in cash during the year as per new provision of income tax u/s 40A(3).
If our company has given salary of 1 Employee for ₹234000/ pa.. per month 19500/ in 2 different days. Is it allowed or disallowed in last FY. ANY PANELTY OR ....
Pl reply
Regards
Sanjay

There is one buyer and two sellers for property sale transaction. consideration is above Rs.50L
1% TDS is deducted by buyer and tds needs to be paid for two sellers
While filling form and paying challan u/s 393 as per new income tax act under the tab details of all deductees(sellers) we filled details of both sellers separately and one challan for entire amount has been generated

My question is after paying challan whether both sellers will get credit for TDS as per their share ?