Dear All,

Please help me out for following:

I m n insurance agent(General Insurance) and to file ST3. As I am using Notification no. 30/2012 which mentions that Service Receiver is 100% liable for Service Tax on insurance income.

Query is, should I fill full income in Box B1.1 or should I fill 0(Zero) rate in Box B1.15 as I have no Service Tax Liability on Insurance income?

A group of radiologists have started a firm to provide tele- radiology services. Their clients will be hospitals where the scaning process will take place. Radiologists will view and provide scan reports online to the hospitals. It is a kind of outsourcing of the reportig work.

Which is the taxable service applicable.

What is the procedure for centralised registration??
I have applied for centralised registration bt office have rejected the same saying first we have to apply for single premises then after 15 days amend the same to centralised.

I am even not able to withdraw the ST 1 application. and it showing status as "Modified ST1 Sent back To ACDC"

Kindly advise me, what to do. is there any other option now.
It is also showing "Service Tax Registration Failure".
Shall i apply again ???

> I AM SERVICE TAX REGISTRATION HOLDER
> WORKS CONTRACT SERVICE
>DETAILS OF WORK ORDER::-
#PREVENT ,MAINTENANCE & REPAIR OF MAKE UP WATER PUMP AND CONNECTED PIPE LINE
#WORK VALUE - 102833/= + SERVICE TAX 7626/= TOTAL 110459/=
# AS PER CALCULATION IN WORK ORDER SERVICE TAX TO BY US AS FOLLOWS::-
- 60% OF WORK VALUE RS.102833/= -61700/=
- TOTAL SERVICE TAX ARISED Rs. 7626/=
- I HAVE BEEN ASKED TO DEPOSIT 50% OF ABOVE SERVICE TAX Rs.7626/= i.e. Rs.3813/=
- SERVICE RECEIVER WILL PAY OTHER 50% AND 50%- AS PAID BY US- WILL BE REIMBURSED TO ME AFTER SUBMISSION OF CHALLAN

QUESTION IS THAT ::- HOW CAN I FEED THE DATA IN ST-3 RETURN(APRIL TO SEPT 14 RETURN) (IF POSSIBLE KINDLY SEND ME COPY OF FORM DULY FILLED UP AS ABOVE)
- WHETHER ANY NOTIFICATION OR ABATEMENT NO TO MENTION IN ST-3 RETURN AND IF YES PLEASE SEND ME NOTIFICATION NO & SL NO AS APPLICABLE.

** YOUR COOPERATION IS HIGHLY EXPECTED
** IT WOULD BE FAR BETTER TO ME IF YOU KINDLY CALL ME OVER PH 9434883466(ANY TIME) OTHERWISE PLEASE SEND YOUR MOBILE NO TO MY MOBILE NO PLEASE, SO THAT I WOULD MORE CLEARED THE MATTER OVER TELEPHONIC DISCUSSION.

THANKS

Hi all,

My client has to pay RCM under Works contract and Supply of Man power. He is not paying the same to government. He has not paid to his vendor also. In his current assets he is showing input and in current liability he is showing his payable for more than 6 months.
1.As per ST provisions rule 3 comes to picture, now it has to be paid by Vendor only correct?
2.If he paid after 1-09-2014 can he avail the cenvat credit for the same.
please solve me with this.

Hi,

one of my client received payment advance for future services in F. Y 2013-2014 70Lac
on that I have deposited service to govt as advance or fill service tax return show advance received cololum but now acutal sales start April 2014 in this service tax
I need to show in coloum of gross receipt to every month sales figure and tax adjusted with advance please let me know what is acutal treatment in case

Pls advise:

Whether on Computer Repairs and Maintainence RCM is applicable under Works Contract
In case Service Provider is an Individual???

One of my client registered with ST Dept. under Restaurant Services.

my client has taken the said restaurant on Rent & paying rent along with Service tax Portion on monthly basis to landlord who also covered under service tax net for Renting of Immovable Property.

Also My client is availing Abatement benefit for the said restaurant services @ 60% by virtue of Notification 26 of 2012 as per Service Tax law i.e. he is paying Service tax only for 40% of Taxable value.

Now query is whether my client can claim as input credit for service tax paid on renting of said property at where he is carrying/providing restaurant services from his Service tax liability on restaurant Services as taxable services after availing benefit of abatement under notification 26 of 2012 or not.

Please reply at the earliest

A company is printing newspapers/magazines/pamphlets as job work using its own material & machine for printing and is paying only VAT/CST on 100% sale value. Is this the right approach or should it be treated as works contract? Is service tax applicable in such cases???

Sir when date of provision of service is 03/04/2012, date of issue of invoice is 31/03/2012 and date of payment is 06/04/2012, then what will be the point of taxation?
I got confused as invoice has been issued earlier than provision of service or payment made.