in case of inter-state branch stock t/f there is no liability for CST and we can take the credit of input at its original rate eg. if paid 4% paid on purchase then we take 4% credit.

And in case of inter-state sale we have to pay CST @2%.

now Question is that if we pay CST @2% even then we have to reverse the 2% credit on purchase? (i.e. we are losing 4%, 2% as reversal on input credit & 2% which we paid)

Where the suppler not remitted output tax on his sale to government but customer claim input tax on his purchase, so at the time of customer assessment the suppler still not remitted the output tax to the government on his sale then is customer have to pay that much of tax?

please give the legal provision and if there is any judgment case

Dear Friends,

Can anyone tell penalty or remedy if assesse
has neither deposited sales tax(dvat) nor filed sales tax return since 8 years?

Is there any rule under the VAT act stating that the goods which are being purchased must be used for Manufacture for availing the input credit of VAT paid.

Dear Experts

We made a CST Sale in FY 2011-12 without C form.

Now while collecting the money, the customer says, he will pay only 2% CST and will provide 'C' form.

What is the way out available to me.

Experts views are solicited.

can input credit be availed on purchase of furniture in TN? Also in TN when machinery is purchased from outside state say Maharashtra then can the company claim any setoff against the CST paid???

Dear Experts,
I am working in a Depot of a Company. For our products we are providing 3 years warranty. But in between 3 years if products become defected then we are providing new product to customer. For giving new product we are not taking any amount. So in this situation can we make ZERO value invoice from Depot.
Kindly confirm me.
Thanks and regards,
R.Dutta.

what effect in profit when we follow inclusive method or exclusive method in income tax which method allow ?

can i claim the input tax credit of vat paid on cement steel etc. during construction of my factory building. iam the dealer of footwear

Is it mandatory to give sales bill inclusive of Mvat (i.e. MVAT is not charged seperately); to all unregistered dealer, even if seller is registered dealer??

And if yes, do we have to maintain different bill format for inclusive vat transactions???