Dear Sir/Mam,

Can anyone give example for significant influence by statute or agreement.
Does Board of Directors appointed through resolution means significant influence by agreement

Please resolve the same as soon as possible

Can I use the term
I For Individuals and
We for Firm and Company while demanding any statements from Bank or other authority,

I have a Company whose financials as well as annual return in form AOC-4 and MGT-7 is not filed for past 2 years. Now, what procedure needs to be followed as regards adoption of financial statements, AGM and Filing of ROC Forms.

Me and my brother had purchased one flat in Pune- Maharashtra by taking a housing loan in the joint name. The loan is completely repaid and now we want to sell the flat. Before selling, I would like to remove my name as an owner so that my brother can purchase a new residential flat in his name. There is no dispute and I would like to volutarily transfer it in his name.
How we can execute this so that we can pay minimal stamp duty or fees to Govt

What are the statutory compliances proprietorship firm needs to follow if hiring 7-8 employees?

an employee once opted for PF deduction , cannot opt out.
In which legal provision it is written he cannot opt out.

I general clauses act it is said that the date of enactment of act is the date mentioned in the act or the date of notification in the official gazette. if no such specific date then the date of assent of president of India.
I have a doubt that do all laws need to be notified in the official gazette. if so why is date of assent of president is also considered

To
The experts
I am a CS (passed in the year 2000) and engaged in a job.
Now I want to resign from the job with an ambition to join LLB(5/3 years) Regular course so that i can start a new profession as a Lawyer.
My query is :
1. Is their any age limit for pursuing LLB(5/3 years) Regular course?

Regards
abhijit


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An office premise was purchased by a partnership firm consisting of 3 partners (later 1 new partner had joined). After some years, the partnership was dissolved mutually and it was agreed that 1 of the original partners would continue business under the same name at the said office premise acquired previously as a proprietorship concern i.e he would take that property as his share of the partnership business – A Deed of Dissolution was made and signed by all partners agreeing to this.

No registration in the land revenues was done for the same and for about 30-35 years the business continued as proprietary concern. Recently, on death of the said proprietor, the legal heir has applied for transfer of office in his name (under Probate of High Court) but the society lawyer has contended that office has not been registered in the name of the continuing partner post dissolution which is required to be done now.

He has suggested to do the registration at the current date by paying full stamp duty @ 6% on the current market value as per ready reckoner rate and post that go for transfer under Probate of Will. Kindly help as on reading of various cases I have found that registration, transfer, stamp duty is not required separately on dissolution of partnership firm even where immovable properties are involved.

Thanks!

Dear Experts,

We have purchased flat in resale from the original buyer. The buyer has paid a fit out deposit to the builder as per the terms and conditions of the sale agreement. While, executing the resale agreement the buyer has transferred all the rights, titles, interests, deposits, membership, advance maintenance etc. to the sellers.
We have carried out interiors as per the guidelines prescribed by the developers and on satisfactory inspection process, we applied for the refund of Fit-out deposit paid by the original buyer. After many attempts and rigorous follow up, to our horror the developer said they have already transferred Fit-out deposit money to the original buyer.
We are following up with the original buyer but now he says he has right on Fit-out deposit and we can not claim it from them.
The terms and conditions of the agreement clearly says everything is transferred to us. But the original buyer is not ready to part with deposit erroneously transferred to him.
What is the legal position in this case and what are the ways to recover the said money?
Experts help is solicited. For record, we have duly submitted all papers including agreement for sale and got no objection certificate from the developers to transfer the said flat in our name one and a half year back.
Thanks and regards.