I m undergoing my articleship.but i do not belong to any big firm.sn i don't have access of how work is being done in big co's. And multinationals but i have a keen interest to know about it.so is it possible to know about these through internet or through some sites for knowledge purpose..plz suggest

Can anybody tell me the scope of Chartered Financial Analyst Course (CFA) in India? I am pursuing CA (currently appearing for ipcc nov. 10), will CFA also help me along with CA? Guidance required from the experts.


Thank You,
Regards,
Devendra Kulkarni

Is Caro mandatory for public companies?

dear all,

plz. someone tell me what is the due date for payment of profession tax deducted from the salary of employee every month.

I hv cleared my ipcc in may'10 and nw i m undergoing articleship..i want some details on industrial training..what it is about? Is is smthing diffrent from regular articleship?how can i pursue it?wht r its benefits?are there any special firms which provide such traning or we culd do it from where we r doing our articleship..

Please let me know the formula for Gratuity calculation with meaning for Salary and no of years of service for this purpose

I want to knowthe full procedure and in further details

what is the procedure of share transfer in a private limited company in case of death of the main shareholder and shares to be transfered to his legal heire?

https://www.caclubindia.com/experts/manpower-providing-516370.asp


provide me the address where to registered these all ?



thanks all for your co operations

Hi Experts,
In the foward Rate Formulae
(i.e)
present value=Futurevalue(interest)/(1+r1)+Future value(interest+principle)/(1+r1)*(1+r2)
My doubt what is the reason for taking (1+r1) even in the 2nd year?can anyone xplain me



amit
( Expert )
14 November 2010


Rate This Expert


this formula will be applicable if the rates in bothe the years are different.

And if the rate is same then you can apply the following formula :

present value=Futurevalue(interest)/(1+r1)+Future value(interest+principle)/(1+r1)*(1+r1)

or

present value=Futurevalue(interest)/(1+r1)+Future value(interest+principle)/(1+r1)^2


So for different rate we have to put (1+r1).



Author : Anonymous
( Author )
14 November 2010
no sir we are discounting future value in the secomg year in such case y we are taking (1+r1) again instead of only (1+r2) pls xplain me in detail im in great confusion