intrepretation of "more clearly evident"?
This query is : Resolved
suraj singh
(Querist)
16 March 2011
i was reading acccounting standards and came across this sentence in as-10.
in case assets are acquired for non monetary consideration then fmv of assets acquired or given up whichever is more clearly evident should be taken as cost of the asset.
My doubtfmv of asset acquired - 500000
fmv of asset given up-450000
what will be the cost of the asset ??
in case assets are acquired for non monetary consideration then fmv of assets acquired or given up whichever is more clearly evident should be taken as cost of the asset.
My doubtfmv of asset acquired - 500000
fmv of asset given up-450000
what will be the cost of the asset ??
Neeraj Bansal CA
(Expert)
16 March 2011
well as per as--10 is that u can took the cost of asset which is more clearly evident . well in such cases took the value of lower one, because if u took higher one u got more dep this result in letter from dept. kkk
practically this works like this
practically this works like this
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