Central sales tax
This query is : Resolved
07 January 2010
Dear Sir,
We (in Chennai) are procuring a certain material from a seller in Bangalore and selling the same to a buyer in Bangalore by charging 2% CST against Form 'C'.
The seller says that he would deliver the material directly to the end buyer considering the urgency of requirement.
This would result in absence of any Lorry receipt, etc. establishing physical movement of goods from Bangalore to Chennai and back to Bangalore.
Will there be any problem if we charge 2% CST in this type of delivery transaction.
We will have valid purchase orders for the relevant transactions.
Please clarify
regards
S. Anand
We (in Chennai) are procuring a certain material from a seller in Bangalore and selling the same to a buyer in Bangalore by charging 2% CST against Form 'C'.
The seller says that he would deliver the material directly to the end buyer considering the urgency of requirement.
This would result in absence of any Lorry receipt, etc. establishing physical movement of goods from Bangalore to Chennai and back to Bangalore.
Will there be any problem if we charge 2% CST in this type of delivery transaction.
We will have valid purchase orders for the relevant transactions.
Please clarify
regards
S. Anand
07 January 2010
It is alocal sale for the banglore party and for karnatka party it is a sale/purchase outside the state.
08 January 2010
Dear Sir,
We (in Chennai) are procuring a certain material from a seller in Bangalore and selling the same to a buyer in Bangalore by charging 2% CST against Form 'C'.
The seller says that he would deliver the material directly to the end buyer considering the urgency of requirement.
This would result in absence of any Lorry receipt, etc. establishing physical movement of goods from Bangalore to Chennai and back to Bangalore.
a) Will there be any problem if we charge 2% CST in this type of delivery transaction.
b) Is a Lorry receipt compulsory to establish movement of goods.
c) Or a mere invoice with CST 2% is sufficient.
We will have valid purchase orders for the relevant transactions.
Please clarify
regards
S. Anand
We (in Chennai) are procuring a certain material from a seller in Bangalore and selling the same to a buyer in Bangalore by charging 2% CST against Form 'C'.
The seller says that he would deliver the material directly to the end buyer considering the urgency of requirement.
This would result in absence of any Lorry receipt, etc. establishing physical movement of goods from Bangalore to Chennai and back to Bangalore.
a) Will there be any problem if we charge 2% CST in this type of delivery transaction.
b) Is a Lorry receipt compulsory to establish movement of goods.
c) Or a mere invoice with CST 2% is sufficient.
We will have valid purchase orders for the relevant transactions.
Please clarify
regards
S. Anand
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