We seek a consultation/opinion for the indirect transfer of shares under the Indian Income Tax Act.

The transaction description is as follows.

1. Holding company (USA Based) is getting sold
2. Shares of a Subsidiary Indian company will change ownership because of the above transactions (Indirect transfer of shares)
3. The company as a whole does not derive any significant value from the Indian company.

We are looking for an opinion on capital gain exposure on this transaction and the tax compliances required in this case.

Minimum investment for an AIF is INR 1 crore.

If there are 5 investors who wish to pool in 20 Lacs each, can an LLP be formed to only invest in an AIF fund?

Also, what will be the company primary objective for such an LLP?

Please assist

Why in Financial Lease the asset is recorded at net present value instead of purchase price ? What is advantage of doing this over writing asset at market price and crediting lessor by total liability

If someone having registered under GST is running hotel having room rent arround 1000-2000 but total turnover during the year is less then 20 lacs during current financial year as well last 3 financial year is he liable to pay gst or he can cancel his gst registration ????

Read more at: https://www.caclubindia.com/experts/ask_query.asp

CAN WE CLAIM SHARE OF LAND MORE THAN 1/3 RD IN JOINT LAND DEVLOPMENT AGREEMENT ?

IF SHARE OF LAND MORE THAN 1/3RD I.E. 60 %
GST IS PAYABLE ONLY 7.2 % (40% OF 18) IS IT CORRECT

Respected Experts

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