27 February 2012
The transactions are ultimately settled by delivery of goods, so, this is not a speculative transaction. . Had he returned /taken the difference to/from customers on the basis of prevailing price of the "commodity" on delivery date, without delivering it, it can be said a speculative transaction. .
27 February 2012
i wan more clarification Example i m gujarat state dealer i purchase the goods from rajasthan but before taking delievery i sold them in the rajasthan to one of dealer.
if still it is not speculativ , give me example of the same