16 February 2013
If a house is purchase in joint names and the agreement is silent on share of each owner then can it be assumed as 50% share i.e equal in case of 2 co-owners.....even if entire payment is made from one of the owners??
16 February 2013
no. its simple, if you an assumption without any logic, nothing stops the AO to make a different assumption and change the sharing ratio.