Hi , I would like to have openion on the following query.

my brother has sold his residence in this financial year for profit. He bought that one year back. He is having another residence in different city and also planning to sell it. the time for holding this second property is 32 months approx.the date of sale will fall in FY 2009-10 Financial year. He already acquired one new flat. What will be the tax implication in this case?

Cheque issued on october 10 2008 but still not presented as on april 25 2009 and the balance sheet has not been signed ,whether the same shall be treated as stale cheque.

hi all,

my client is in computer business. he buys and sells software license. vendor charges vat and service tax both on the invoice price of software license. now, the question is whether tax is to be deducted at source on the said transaction.

Will it make any differnce if the professional from vendor visits end user and provides some installation, demo etc at the instruction of my client.

My pranams to people answering the question.
A sum was paid to interviewees(people attending the interview) for conveyance. Tickets were bought, and for others the same was re-imbursed. I want to know whether FBT is chargeable on the same.If there is any case to support your arguement, please quote the same. I want an expert-opinion on the same.
Thank you once again
Radhe krishna

Dear All,

We are Ltd., Company. Engaged in manfacuring of Plastic Pails & Pouches.

We are having 2 units, in the one unit we are manfacturing the above said items and sale the same to our customers.

in the another unit, we manfacutring the same items on jobwork basis to others. The Raw material will be supplied by them. my queqy is can we claim input tax credit (on capital goods & Maintenace Exp.(Machinery & Plant) of the unit where we don't have the liability output tax.

can we adjust the input tax credit with output tax payable at another unit.

Please suggest us along with relevant sections.

With regards.
Rama Krishna.
Jr.Executive -Accts.

if the goodwill is already in balance sheet before dissolution of partnership firm and information about treatment of goodwill is not mentioned then what should be the right treatment?

dsadf

Sirs,

We are an 100% EOU registered exporter. Hence we have no requirement for Service Tax / SaleTax (VAT) registration as we dont bill domestic.

Now We have planned to organise a training event and would be receiving registration fee and would be obliged to provide receipts. Should we have to deduct any sort of service tax/..... But we have no registration.

How could we treat the fee. Can anyone of you suggest on the situation.

Thanks
Samrat

Dear Experts
I am a indiviual resident of india
i have incured expenditure Rs 1 lac on Cardiac Surgery of Rs 1 lac can i claim sec 80DDB
Does Cardiac Surgery (Bypass Surgery) Mets with Disease ?

please reply at the earliest
you ppl can contact me at harish.shetty247@gmail.com

Dear Friends,

Please advise. Can a person be appointed as WTD of more than 1 company. Also mention if there is any source or DCA clarification etc.

As per my opinion a person may be appointed as a Whole Time Director in more than 1 company especially under the same group companies.

Regarding WTD there is no specific provision like sec. 316(MD) or 386(Manager) to regulate the appointment of WTD. As far as section 269, 302 and schedule XIII are concerned they don't talk about no. of assignments as WTD.

Thanks in advance. Regards