WE ARE A MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES WE GIVE A CONTRACT FOR CANTEEN BUILDING & ADMIN BUILDING CONSTRUCTION WITH MATERIAL ON 20000000/- CONTRACTOR GIVE 1ST RA BILL OF RS 600000/- AND S.TAX @ 4.13 CHARGED & ALSO VAT @0.6%. IS IT OK? THEY CAN CHARGE THESE S.TAX & VAT ON BILL.

I WANT TO KNOW THAT IF GOODS IS PURCHASES OUT OF MAHARASHTRA BY PAYING CST AND I SOLD GOODS IN MAHARASHTRA BY COLLECTING VAT.CAN I TAKE A SETOFF OF VAT WITH CST IF I HAVE NO SALES OUTSIDE MAHARASHTRA

We have a maruti True Value Shop under which we sale and purchase used old cars.My seniors say on the sale of old cars there is a amount of VAT percentage to be paid according to the CC of the cars which the state govt has fixed. Lets say 5%on 800CC car, 8% on 1500CC car and so on.
My query is that we pay VAT on the sale of the used old cars but we are not taking any VAT input on the purchase of these cars.Is it the right thing that we are only paying VAT output and not taking any VAT input credit on these sale of old cars. Please clarify.


Thanks in Advance

i am filling monthly A-1 return regularly under TNVAT Act. I am selling the sold goods against form H only and claimed the input against local purchases regularly.So always i am having excess credit only and carried forward the credit regularly.i have not filled form w sofar since i donot need the refund and i want to adjust the excess credit against my local taxable sales in future.whether my view is correct or not
somethem threatned me that you can claim the excess credit only by filling Form W .
advise me
to my email id saranaudit@yahoo.com

Dear all,

we have purchased good at which VAT Rate is 12.5%, RS 10000/- and now we have sold the same goods against C Form levied rate 2%. amount is 4000/-

My Questiones is After taking the credit of Vat against CST, means 4000/-, can we take the credit of balance amount of Rs 6000/- from other VAT/CST payable which is availble of other goods,

pls give ur expert opinion on that matter,

it would be benefacial for me if u send ur opinion on my personal id which is

goel.dheeraj@rediffmail.com


regards
dheeeraj goel

Dear Sir,

my case is

1) i received the Purchase order From UP Customer for manufacturing of Moulds and delivery terms mentioned in PO are Delivery at UP Plant

2) After Manufacturing, we raised the bill to UP Customer by Charging him CST @2%.

3) but later on as per instruction of UP Customer, we transfer the finished mould within the state to our branch for manufacturing of Customer specified goods by using the mould.

4) Here, Customer prepare the Seprate Loan Document which is Clearly mentioned that the Proporty (i.e. Moulds) are in the name of customer of UP and we have to use only for Mfg. purpose of customer.

5) Now, Customer claiming that CST is not chargeble on this transaction and we must charge the VAT on the same

Please suggest, which tax i can charged.

We run an online retail store based out of Bangalore. We plan to sell all over India. We will be selling clothes manufactured outside India and imported. What will be the VAT and CST rates we have to pay? I also think we need to bear the entire VAT/CST burden in this case. Is this correct?

What is Tax liability if 'C' Form received amount is less by 1000/- than actual Central Sale amount. Wheather we have to deposit Additional CST on balance Rs.1000/-with interest or the C form can be rejected by the Assessing Authority and ask for Addl. CST on Total CST Sale with interest

Hello Experts,

Our company has its registered office in rented residential premises. However, we were just informed by our lawyers that VAT registration cannot be done in residential premises and that we have to take up a commercial premise. Can someone clarify the rules please? For example, can I retain my (rented) residence as the registered office and still use the same for VAT without any repercussion for the owner? We are involved only in online sales at this time!

Thanks.

Dear Sir,
We have recently started trading business, supplying to another states also. But my apprehension is:
I purchase the goods here in Mumbai at 4% VAT
And I sell the goods to another state against C Form at 2% CST.

I make a direct loss of 2%, which is merely my profit margin.
Can the difference 2% be claimed or is there any way out of it.

I understand that purchasing from another state against C Form at 2% CST and selling in domestic market at 4% VAT, I have to pay back the difference with the tax of value added on it, but I cannot understand the reverse system.

Please advice urgently.

Thank you.
Regards,
Krunal
Mumbai