One of our clients get basic raw material from it's customers....they further process the material by galvanising it...hence they get covered under Business Auxillary service...

Now this client has come to know from his fellow job workers in the market that they are paying service tax of 12.36% only on 30% of the billed amount that is they are availing abatement of 70%...Please remember there is no seperate billing, there is only a single invoice raised showing how many pieces galvanised....Their contention is that since alimunium is used in galvanasing the service tax is not payable on such use of alimunium....

Hence i would like to know from you if there is such a provision in the act which can be availed....I am unable to find any such provision and believe that 12.36% is payable on the entire invoice raised.

Respected Sir,

I have purchased steel bar on 10th Sep 2007 The said Invoice is received on 30th Mar 2008

Can I get Vat set off on its Invoice Value in Mar 2008?

Yours Faithfully


Vilas Choudhari

Respected Shailesh Sir,

Thanks for sending mail immediately

As per your statement of TDS on Dividend which is exampted in hand of Shareholder

Company have to pay tax on Dividend

Which rate is applicable on pay tax on Dividend ?

With best regards,

Vilas

Dear Experts,

I am pursuing CA Final......BUT along with that I want to do some one year distance learning course in finance which can enhance my CV and add value to my career........Can any one pls. advise me which course i should go for and relevant details in that respect.........

Regards

Pankaj Gupta

Hi Experts.....

on 31st March 2008 i book professional fees as follows:

Professional Fees A/c Dr. 100000
To Professional Fees Payable 100000.
(TDS has not been provided)

Expected date of payment : 15th July 2008
The Company will deduct TDS on 15th July 2008 and remit the TDS to the I.T. Dept.

My friend's opinion: The expenditure will be allowed in the year of Payment, i.e. F.Y. 2008 - 2009, as per sec 43B.

My Opinion: The expenditure will be permanently disallowed, because as per sec 40(a)(ia), the expenditure will be allowed only if TDS is deducted. (Date of credit or payment, whichever falls earlier). So in the above case TDS has not been deducted, so the expenditure is ineligible for allowance.

Suggest me, which opinion is correct.
Explain me in detail

Thank You Experts

My friend has cleared PE1 in May 06 and gave PE2 in Nov 07 but failed to clear it.Now, he has converted to PCC and started articleship from 1/3/08. When is he eligible for PCC exams? Is there some definite period of articleship he has to serve before being eligible for PCC?

is this the book on "auditing" of padhuka as suggested by thakur sir.

Sekar G & Saravana Prasath B - A Students Handbook on Auditing and Assurance

http://www.books4u.in/book_detail.php?book_id=5132

Hi All
Kindly Suggest the last date for the submission of Q4 Return of TDS

Reg
Bharat

sir,

i want to know that how can i ascertain that for financial year it is deffered asset or liability.

please explain that with a practical example so can i understand it easily.

thanks sir

please briefly define the provision related to the service tax payment of any transport service provider?