A user is seeking advice on reissuing an e-way bill for a 'bill to ship to' transaction where goods were dispatched directly from the vendor. The buyer is requesting the user's e-way bill, but the user is hesitant to share the vendor's invoice details. The core issue is whether a new e-way bill can be generated after the goods have already been delivered, and the expert advice suggests this is not possible, even post-delivery, recommending to erase the amount and provide the e-way bill.
04 June 2020
Dear Experts, We have send the goods direct from our vendor through bill to ship to transaction,
However since movement of goods was taken in support of our vender invoice & eway bill. Hence we have send only invoice to our buyer but now buyer is asking for our eway bill,
Further we don't want to provide eway bill generated by my vendor to buyer as far as the goods price Is concern,
Pls clarify:- the consequences if we generate new eway bill whereas movement of goods has already been Done via bill to ship to transaction,