18 May 2011
the question is that if suppose a manufactured goods is sold .... in which the involvement of service charges is there ...... than in that case are we going to bifurcate the cost of service and the value of goods.... to charge service tax and excise duty... respectively OR charge the whole value(including the value of service) under excise duty.
IF YES THAN WHY AND HOW.......
LIKE FOR EXAMPLE.. CAR IS SOLD .... WHERE COMPANY PROVIDE FREE SERVICES....BUT COST IS INDIRECTLY INCLUDED IN THE VALUE OF CAR...... OR VARIOUS TYPE OF EXAMPLE..........
18 May 2011
any service provided is taxable when its invoiced and party is debited for it,
when the services of car is done by company himself, no service tax is payable, as the company is paying after sales service of his own products,
but when service is rendered by any agenet, service centre who raise bills on company for doing so, then service tax is paid on billing basis from service provider to company.
customer is not getting effected with such agreement of company and service centre, its company part that in absence of performing his duties he has hired service provider.