sir
can anybody tell me wheather the Ins. has allowed transfer of article ship for only one time.
actually something like that was written in the Sep,09 Student newsletter

plz help
as soon as possible

Sir i have an articleship in jaipur & i want to transfer to bikaner because i cant suit the climate of jaipur.......
can it is possible???????
please rply me......

As new notification, all questions are compulsory.
What we mean that there is no genaral option or even internal choices are also not there?

i heard regarding all ca final papers are going to without choice but no where i found inthe web site as annoucing by the icai my doubt is whether it is true or not if it is true from which attempt onwards applicable
kindly clarify me bcoz iam writing both groups of final ca

No choice for CA Nov 2009 Exams??

hi friends and seniors.

im abhishek.i gave my c.a final in june 2009 both groups and got only exemption in mafa ,70 marks.

now in nov 2009 exam im giving my remainsing papers of both grops,my first group this time is strong and i think i wil score around 150 marks in accounts+audit+law....that wil make my aggregate of frist group to 220

i wil also give second group but to be honest i dont thnk i wil be able to make it due to DT and idt...wht i want to knw is tht if i give both of my group and i pass my 1st group,and get round about 220 marks in it,,,,will i need only 180 passing marks in second group when i sit for may 2010 attempt ?

im really confused regarding it.i do knw passing 40 marks is mandatory but wil i need 200 marks then in secong gropu or 180 marks ....


i invite all experts and my colleagues who have knwledge regarding it to help me in this..

please try to reply soon...
thanking u

Complusory means nt hvg any option, then wat happen in theory paper & paper like costing. is it true?

This is with reference to RTP of nov 2009. The problem says that Bid(gbp/euro) = .6858
Ask(gbp/euro) = .6869.
The company has surplus of 725000 euros. To convert it into gbp, i did the following step
1. 725000 euros * bid(gbp/euro)=
725000*.6858 = 497205
I applied bid rate because we sell euros and bank buys euros. Thus i used bid rate (bank prespective)

But the problem is done as 725000*.6869 = 498002.
I feel there is a mistake in RTP solution. Kindly clarify me in this regard.

Is there any committee had been formed for taking consideration regarding reduction of articleship of PCC students. actualy i came to know that there is a committe for this issue but not having any confirm news.anyone who knows anything about this matter please reply.. or send me the link of the same news..

Can we now take the transfer of articleship? plz, help me.