Sir,

I am working in muscat, and i am preparing on my own for the final exams which is scheduled in may 08. i am preparing for both the groups.

can anyone suggest me how to go about covering the entire syllabus for both groups and come out in both groups successfully in may 08

thanks in advance

Balaji S.

what is the meaning of "fmv of the date on which option vests"in amendment in finance act
2007? word "vests" means- 1.securities offered or 2.option opted by employee

NET SALES REVENUE 475000
COST OF GOOD SOLD 200000
GENERAL EXPENSES 100000
DEPRICIATION 50000
PBIT 125000
INTEREST 25000
PBT 100000
TAX @ 40% 40000
PROFIT AFTER TAX 60000

Q.1 WHAT IS ANNUAL CASH INFLOW CONSIDERING INTEREST EXCLUSION
PRINCIPLE WITHIN NPV METHOD?
Q.2 WILL WE TAKE TAX SAVING ON INTEREST , REASON?
Q.3 WILL WE IGNORE INTEREST DUE TO ABOVE MENTIONED PRINCIPLE
, GIVE REASON?

I WILL BE THANKFUL FOR YOUR RESPONSE , THANK YOU IN ADVANCE.

Hello Everyone,

I am new to this forum but find it an excellent platform to exchange ideas and get help to any queries one may have.

I am currently based in singapore studying master's degree in international accounting which more or less emphasises on International Financial Reporting Standards.

I need a big favour in regards to a couple of assignments that I am working on. The first one is based on a few questions related to accounting treatment under IFRS and the second one relates to Net Present Value with sensitivity as well as scenario analysis.

I would be highly greatful if any one can give some time and help me out with these queries. Thanks a lot in advance.

Please contact me on bgarima01 at the rate of googlemail dot com

Regards,

Garima

What is the difference between Domestic Company and Foreign Company

Dear Sir

Who is liabale for TDS on freight in following cases.

(1) A trader who is from Indore and dealing in grains and purchases grain from a station i.e. Kota and directaly sold Grains to Pune and bilty of freight is in the name of Indore trader. partial payment of bilty was made by agent of trader at kota and partial was made by trader of pune and recovered from trader of Indore.

My vendor has raised a invoice for a prior period Interest...will this be a allowable expense in my books...

If L&T RMC sells RMC to a Developer, who is selling the structure (no separate billing for various components), is the Developer eligible to claim input tax credit?

We were told this is possible, but have recently received inputs saying it is not possible.

We are looking at the following states - WB, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, AP, TN, Punjab, Goa

If L&T RMC sells RMC to a Contractor, who is doing item-wise billing (separate billing for RMC, bricks, labour, etc.) with his customer, is the contractor eligible to claim input tax credit?

We were told this is possible, but have recently received inputs saying it is not possible.

We are looking at the following states - WB, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, AP, TN, Punjab, Goa

Please guide me to appreciate the following wrt to the supramentioned subject
1. My employer is not adjusting Rs. 2 lacs i.e. the amount it has recovered from me in lieu of notice pay, in my tax computation. It contends that the same cannot be adjusted against the salary income accrued to me as per the terms of the employment. It says that the amount has been adjusted against the leave encashment and the salary for the month of Sept,07 in which i worked with them.

I have the following to submit as per the income tax act salary is defined as "
salary is the remuneration received by or accruing to an individual periodically for service rendered as a result of an express or implied contract".

Accordingly net inflows against the contract of employment is what should be brought under the ambit of tax and the total salary paid net of notice pay received should be used for tax computation. To simplyfy my observation, I want your opinion for a scenario where the employment contract outlines for a payment of 2 months basic pay to an employee in case he achieves his objectives by the end of the year otherwise the employee is responsible for paying 2 months basic pay to the company. In my opinion in the above scenario salary will be adjusted with 2 months basic pay in both scenarios i.e. in case of payment by employer it'll be added in the tax compuation of the employee and vice versa. Please help me because i am getting hugely impacted due to this stance of my employer.

2. Further, i want to check with you that will there be any difference in tax for me in case my present employer pays the notice period directly to my previous employer.

Many thanks for your thoughtful advise.