16 November 2013
1)what do you mean by Substantial Interest? 2)what is the meaning of benificial owner?? 3) If a director is holding 18% of equity capital (in case of company) and his wife is holding 2% of equity capital of that particular company whether it would be covered by provision of section 40A(2)??
16 November 2013
substantial interest is clearly defined in explanation in the section itself.
the term beneficial ownership is not defined in the act. But given that this section doesn't talk about clubbing the shareholding of relatives etc, wife's share should normally not be included. Section such as 92A talks about indirect shareholding which is not the case with 40A.
But then there is an alternative view that beneficial ownership includes indirect holdings too. So you need to read the applicable case laws and see what approximates to the facts of your case more.
17 November 2013
The Company X. is making payment for certain expenses to Company Y. and Mr.Z is a director in X & Y. Mr.Z's holding in the Y company is 18 % and wife of Z is holding 2% in Y company.so wanted to know based on the above holding pattern any judicial pronuncement which states that even indirect holding will be covered for sec.40A(2).
23 July 2025
You're asking a very nuanced question regarding Section 40A(2) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 — specifically around "substantial interest" and whether indirect holdings (such as via a spouse) can bring a person under this section.
Let’s address your query step by step.
🔍 1. What is "Substantial Interest"? As per Explanation (b) to Section 40A(2)(b):
An individual is deemed to have substantial interest in a concern if:
In the case of a company, the individual beneficially owns ≥ 20% of the equity shares (individually, not clubbed with relatives).
In the case of a firm/AOP, the individual is entitled to ≥ 20% of the profits.
📌 Key Point: This is direct holding only, unless you can prove indirect control or beneficial ownership.
🔍 2. What is "Beneficial Ownership"? The term is not defined in the Income Tax Act.
Broadly, beneficial owner means someone who enjoys benefits of ownership, even if not registered as the legal owner.
It may cover indirect holdings, trust structures, or control via relatives, but only if substantiated.
✅ Your Scenario Recap: Person Shares in Company Y Mr. Z 18% Mrs. Z 2% Total 20% (combined)
Mr. Z is a director in both X and Y. Company X is making payments to Company Y.
Question: Does this fall under Section 40A(2) because Mr. Z + wife hold 20% in Company Y?
📌 Position in Law: Section 40A(2)(b) does not expressly mention clubbing the holdings of relatives (unlike Section 92A or Section 56).
Therefore, holding of wife cannot be clubbed to compute substantial interest unless Mr. Z is shown to be the beneficial owner of her shares too.
Just being a spouse is not sufficient for clubbing under this section.
⚖️ Relevant Case Laws & Interpretations: ITO v. R.A. Patel [1996] 56 ITD 273 (Ahd)
Held that substantial interest must be based on direct holding, not by clubbing relatives' holdings unless specifically provided.
Reinforced that Section 40A(2)(b) requires strict interpretation; clubbing not allowed unless explicitly stated.
S.P. Goyal v. DCIT (1999) 68 ITD 495 (ITAT Delhi)
“Beneficial ownership” must be substantiated with facts like source of investment, control, and benefit drawn — mere relation is not enough.
🧾 Conclusion: Mr. Z holds 18% → does not qualify as having substantial interest alone.
Mrs. Z's 2% → cannot be clubbed unless it can be proven that Mr. Z is the beneficial owner of her shares (e.g. he funded the investment, controls the voting, receives benefits, etc.).
Thus, Section 40A(2) may not apply, unless you can substantiate beneficial ownership.
✅ Suggestion for Audit/Tax Filing: Keep documentation ready showing separate ownership.
If in doubt or under scrutiny, include a note in the tax file regarding the shareholding structure and explain why 40A(2) was not invoked.
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