In an Accountancy Book by T.S. Grewal, in the chapter of Journal, there is a question: "Insurance premium amounting to ₹50,000 was paid by cheque for all the machines. Out of the premium, ₹5,000 was towards insurance of new machinery." The solution given is:
Insurance Premium A/c Dr. 45,000
Machinery A/c Dr. 5,000
To Bank A/c 50,000
Since the premium of ₹5,000 is for the new machinery, it is debited to the Machinery A/c.

So, this means it is capitalized, right!?

Now, in the same book, in the chapter of Final Accounts, there is a question asking us to differentiate certain items of expenditure on the basis of Capital & Revenue. The questions are:

1. Second-hand car was purchased for a sum of ₹50,000. A sum of ₹10,000 was spent on its overhauling.
Answer (given in the book): Both the expenditures are capital expenditures. (I don't have any issues in this).
2. Cost of annual taxes paid and the annual insurance premium paid on the car mentioned above.
Answer (given in the book): This is a Revenue Expenditure!

Aren't these views conflicting!? Please explain!

Suppose we take a loan to construct a building on 01.04.2017. Annual Interest is say ₹5,00,000. The term of the loan is 5 years. The building gets constructed by 31.03.2019. Then, Interest paid on the loan for the pre-construction period, i.e. 2 years, is capitalized. Why?

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I mean what is the logic behind the valuation of closing stock