financial leverage

yes it is correct (a small variation is there)

EBIT/EBIT - int - pref div/1-t (this is because these are earnings before tax and there is no tax on pref. div.)

financial leverage shows a relation with change in EBIT and earnings available for equity share holders so there is no doubt regarding this

Formula is as follows:

EBIT/EBIT-INTT-(PREF. DIVIDENE/(I-TAX))

Here prefernce dividend will only be divided by (1-tax) to make this figure befors tax. because EBIT is earnings before intt & tax. Intt is also deducted before aplying the tax.