WOULD BE GLAD IF SOMEONE REPLIES

App 240000*20= 4800000.......(1)

Allot: due 200000*50=10000000

 -paid in advance=       800000

- E not paid           = 184000

(4000*50)-(800*20)

So total rec on all 9016000...........(2)

CALLS     =9500000...........(3)

(200000*50)-(10000*50)

Reissue=8000*90=720000........(4)

bank balance= 24036000

Sorry everyone

but as per me following is simple calculation please refer & revert if found any mistake

I have also compared my answer with old one so that my disagreements with old one can be easily found.

Originally posted by : Nandish Shukla
	Sorry everyone but as per me following is simple calculation please refer & revert if found any mistake      Particulars   Shares   Per share   Bank Receipts   Old Answer   Difference   Applications    240,000        20         4,800,000         4,800,000 -  Allotment    196,000        50         9,800,000         9,020,000         780,000  All Two Calls    190,000        50         9,500,000         8,500,000      1,000,000  Reissue        8,000        90            720,000           720,000  -  Total    24,820,000  23,040,000  1,780,000 I have also compared my answer with old one so that my disagreements with old one can be easily found.

You have not considered excess money on 40000 shares at the time of application which will be adjusted against allotment

Yup sorry rectifying that one but in old one there are other differences also.

Ya 1000000 at allotment it was a multiplication mistake I admit but still at the time of allotment the differance u r getting of 20000 is due to shares of E who was alloted 4000 shares but he paid application monet on 5000 shares so excess application money (5000-4000)*20= 20000 will be there in the cash balance.

Actually you are making mistake at getting E's applied Shares by 5000 number

That is coming to 4800 shares.

4000*240000/200000 ( as he is alloted 4000 shares total alloted shares = 200000 & total allotment made to 240000 shares)

PLease check

ya its 4800 ye sunday kuch hota hi nahi

next time i will take care not reply casually

but 4800-4000= 800*20= 16000 will be there in the answer

So finally i modified my first answer and all things there now r correct

It Is Okey Yaar,

It is not fault of sunday or else,

it is fault of simplicity even I have not considerred the allotment issue.

None is perfact in everything.

We must be student to learn at anytime or any age.

Thanks

Originally posted by : NewLife

 pleasse find attcahed file containing the calculation of amount representing as bank balance

Hi everybody, the simple way to solve it is :

Amount paid by non-defaulting shareholderds (1,90,000 x 120)         = 2,28,00,000

Amount paid by E (pro rata 4,000/6 * 5 = 4800 x 20)                              =        96,000

Amount paid by F (6,000 x 70)                                                                    =     4,20,000

Amount paid by G (8,000 x 90)                                                                   =     7,20,000

Total bank balance                                                                                      = 2,40,36,000

Regards, CA Shakuntala Chhangani