Machinary sale
Why does movable property comes under capital gains when its only profits.. (sec 50)?
Replies (3)
Because it's included in Defination of Capital Asset. and Simple our goverment make the law and we have to follow
Thats not very cool idea
First Thing You Have To Be Clear That All The Assessee Is Not Doing Trade In Movable Property So For Them It Is Investment... If They Are Traded In Movable Property Then Only They Will Classfied As Stock In trade and Question of Profits Arises and Will Taxable Under PGBP...
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