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parul (student) (47 Points)
Replied 20 June 2012

u sure..many r saying its future consideration..



pratik singhal (z) (276 Points)
Replied 20 June 2012

its future consideration may be past present o future! 


pratik singhal (z) (276 Points)
Replied 20 June 2012

maths ques any one knws? corelation regression of x and y is related to a.am b.gm c.hm d.none?


sandeep (student) (32 Points)
Replied 20 June 2012

EXECUTORY .....100%


AJAY SONI (Student-B.Com CA-IPCC)   (103 Points)
Replied 20 June 2012

IT CANNOT BE FUTURE CONSIDERATION. BECAUSE,,,,IT EXISTED AT THE TIME OF CONTRACT.......AGR QUES ME HOTA KI WOEK SALL BAAD FLAT BANAKAE DEGA TB YE FUTURE CONSIDERATION HOGA




KRISHNAPRASAD IYER (B.Com , CA Final) (657 Points)
Replied 20 June 2012

property; i.e; ownership is transferred


sandeep (student) (32 Points)
Replied 20 June 2012

i think it should be possession.....


Nirmal (CA-FInal) (280 Points)
Replied 21 June 2012

its  undoubtly Executory consideration....as theres no further descripttion on past present or future consideraion in CPT law book


naeem shaikh (ipcc student ) (132 Points)
Replied 21 June 2012

right answer is property 


Mihir Manohar (CA Final - Article Assistant)   (474 Points)
Replied 25 June 2012

I also agree that its property. Because as price has been paid, so its SALE and not AGREEMENT TO SELL and also here as nothing has been mentioned, so we should consider that GOODS HAVE BEEN APPROPRIATED(As in most cases we witness that price is paid only after goods have been appropriated).As a result PROPERTY is transferred.




Kalyan Srivatsava Thupili (Student IPCC) (155 Points)
Replied 26 June 2012

after the payment of goods the seller transfers ___________ in goods? a.posession b. property c.rights d.control Property- because "after the payment of goods" it is clear that the buyer had aquired control over the goods since he exchanged the good for necessary amount of his money. The goods may be still with the seller but it is the buyer who has control over them, since they are now his propery. It can even be possession, BUT first the property passes to the buyer. Possession is said to have passed when the buyer has the goods now with him. It is not compulsory that payment is required for possession.

Nilesh Koparde (Hardwork is a key of Success...)   (678 Points)
Replied 27 June 2012

POSITION



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