Doubt in Internal Reconstruction.....

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The balance sheet as at 31st march 2006 is given-

6% CUM PREF SHARES OF 100 EACH               100000.00

The following scheme of reorganisation is santioned as under-

The treatment for preference shares is given as,  The pref shares are converted from 6% to 15% but revalued in a manner in which the total return on them remains unaffected.

PLEASE TEL ME HOW TO CALCULATE THE NO. OF NEW PREFERENCE SHARES ALONG WITH STEPS AND WHAT AMT WILL BE TRANSFERRED TO RECONSTRUCTION ACCOUNT.

Replies (8)

400 shares of Rs 100 each...

I think 1000  15% pref.shares of rs. 40 each

as they are to be converted in a maner dat return remains same.

previous return 100*6%=rs.6   ,hence new return should also be  6 

so revalued amt.=6*100/15=40 

and rs. 60000 will go to reconstruction a/c

6% preference share of100 each           = 1,00,000

Number of shares                                     =   1,000

Return  ( 6% on 1,00,000)                         =    6,000

The pref shares are converted from 6% to 15% but revalued in a manner in which the total return on them remains unaffected.

i.e. 6,000/15%         =  40,000

Number of prefernce shares   = 400 (40,000/100)

i.e. 15% preference share capital @ 100 each   =  40,000

Entry :-

 6% Prefrence share capital    a/c                     Dr.    1,00,000

          To 15% Preference share capital  a/c                                 40,000

          To Reconstruction  a/c                                                            60,000

 

NOTE:- TALLY YOUR ANSWER

RETURN WILL BE SAME i.e.

PREVIOUS RETURN           = 6,000  (6% ON 1,00,000)

NEW RETURN                      = 6,000 (15% ON 40,000 )

former we r getting a return of 6rs for every 100 invested. in d scheme reconstruction it was agreed that d rate of interst is 15%. total interst before reconstruction is 6000. after reconstruction also interst ll same.that means noe also we ll earn same interst.

                                              15---100

                                               6000--?

                            so num.of shares r 40000

and d entry is    6%preference share cap a/c dr-600000

                                            to    15%new prefernce share cap a/c 4000000

                                                    to reconstruction a/c                    200000

hi mounika .. only rs. 60000 will go to reconstruction a/c 

hw can u debit old cap as 600000 when the capital iyself is 100000

kamal's entry is correct

ya. i mso sry frnds. i just ans another question and printed it here. i m extremely so sorry. correct entry is

                     old 6% preference share cap a/c  dr-100000

                          to new 15% p. share cap a/c                    -40000

                           to recontruction a/c                                  -60000              

         plz excuse me

Originally posted by : mounika

ya. i mso sry frnds. i just ans another question and printed it here. i m extremely so sorry. correct entry is

                     old 6% preference share cap a/c  dr-100000

                          to new 15% p. share cap a/c                    -40000

                           to recontruction a/c                                  -60000              

         plz excuse me

Excused hahhahah  :)

 dont worry mounika sabke sath hota h , keep answering.

Originally posted by : kamal kishor sen
6% preference share of100 each           = 1,00,000
Number of shares                                     =   1,000
Return  ( 6% on 1,00,000)                         =    6,000
The pref shares are converted from 6% to 15% but revalued in a manner in which the total return on them remains unaffected.
i.e. 6,000/15%         =  40,000
Number of prefernce shares   = 400 (40,000/100)
i.e. 15% preference share capital @ 100 each   =  40,000
Entry :-
 6% Prefrence share capital    a/c                     Dr.    1,00,000
          To 15% Preference share capital  a/c                                 40,000
          To Reconstruction  a/c                                                            60,000
 
NOTE:- TALLY YOUR ANSWER
RETURN WILL BE SAME i.e.
PREVIOUS RETURN           = 6,000  (6% ON 1,00,000)
NEW RETURN                      = 6,000 (15% ON 40,000 )
this is the right answer


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