Few important takeaways from the Memorandum Finance Bill 2019

Posted on 06 July 2019

Facilitating demerger of Ind-AS compliant companies

One of the existing conditions for tax-neutral demergers is that the resulting company should record the property and the liabilities of the undertaking at the value appearing in the books of accounts of the demerged company. It has been represented that Indian Accounting Standards (Ind-AS) compliant companies are required to record the property and the liabilities of the undertaking at a value different from the book value of the demerged company. In order to facilitate, it is proposed to amend section 2 of the Act to provide that the requirement of recording property and liabilities at book value by the resulting company shall not be applicable in a case where the property and liabilities of the undertakings received by it are recorded at a value different from the value appearing in the books of account of the demerged company immediately before the demerger in compliance to the Indian Accounting Standards specified in Annexure to the Companies (Indian Accounting Standards) Rules, 2015.

This amendment will take effect, from 1st April, 2020 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2020-21 and subsequent assessment years. [Clause 3]

Relaxing the provisions of sections 201 and 40 of the Act in case of payments to non-residents

Section 201 of the Act provides that where any person, including the principal officer of a company or an employer (hereinafter called 'the deductor'), who is required to deduct tax at source on any sum in accordance with the provisions of the Act, does not deduct or does not pay such tax or fails to pay such tax after making the deduction, then such person shall be deemed to be an assessee in default in respect of such tax.

The first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 201 specifies that the deductor shall not be deemed to be an assessee in default if he fails to deduct tax on a payment made to a resident, if such resident has furnished his return of income under section 139, disclosed such payment for computing his income in his return of income, paid the tax due on the income declared by him in his return of income and furnished an accountant's certificate to this effect.

This relief in section 201 is available to the deductor, only in respect of payments made to a resident. In case of similar failure on payments made to a non-resident, such relief is not available to the deductor. To remove this anomaly, it is proposed to amend the proviso to sub-section (1) of section 201 to extend the benefit of this proviso to a deductor, even in respect of failure to deduct tax on payment to non-resident.

Consequent to this amendment, it is also proposed to amend the proviso to sub-section (1A) of section 201 to provide for levy of interest till the date of filing of return by the non-resident payee (as is the case at present with resident payee). These amendments will take effect from 1st September, 2019. [Clause 49]

For the same reason, it is also proposed to amend clause (a) of section 40 to provide that where an assessee fails to deduct tax in accordance with the provisions of Chapter XVII-B on any sum paid to a non-resident, but is not deemed to be an assessee in default under the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 201, then it shall be deemed that the assessee has deducted and paid the tax on such sum on the date of furnishing of the return of income by the payee referred to in that proviso. Thus, there will be no disallowance under section 40 in respect of such payments.

This amendment will take effect from 1st April, 2020 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2020-21 and subsequent assessment years. [Clause 10]

Clarification with regard to power of the Assessing Officer in respect of modified return of income filed in pursuance to signing of the Advance Pricing Agreement (APA)

Section 92CC of the Act empowers the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) to enter into an APA, with the approval of the Central Government, with any person for determining the Arm's Length Price (ALP) or specifying the manner in which ALP is to be determined in relation to an international transaction which is to be entered into by that person. The APA is valid for a period, not exceeding five previous years, as may be specified therein. This section also provides for rollback of the APA for four years. Thus, once the APA is entered into, the ALP of the international transaction, which is subject matter of the APA, would be determined in accordance with such APA.

In order to give effect to the APA, section 92CD also provides for mechanism, including filing of modified return of income by the taxpayer and manner of completion of assessments by the Assessing Officer having regard to terms of the APA.

Sub-section (3) of this section deals with a situation where assessment or re-assessment has already been completed, before expiry of the time allowed for filing of modified return. Apprehensions have been expressed stating that due to the use of words 'assess or reassess or recompute', the Assessing Officer may start fresh assessment or reassessment in respect of completed assessments or reassessments of the assessees who have modified their returns of income in accordance with the APA entered into by them, while the intention of the legislature is for Assessing Officer to merely modify the total income consequent to modification of return of income in pursuance to APA.

It is, therefore, proposed to amend sub-section (3) of section 92CD to clarify that in cases where assessment or reassessment has already been completed and modified return of income has been filed by the tax payer under sub-section (1) of said section, the Assessing Officers shall pass an order modifying the total income of the relevant assessment year determined in such assessment or reassessment, having regard to and in accordance with the APA.

This amendment will take effect from 1st September, 2019. [Clause 29]

Clarification with regard to provisions of secondary adjustment and giving an option to assessee to make one-time payment

In order to align the transfer pricing provisions with international best practices, section 92CE of the Act provides for secondary adjustments in certain cases.

It, inter alia, provides that the assessee shall be required to carry out secondary adjustment where the primary adjustment to transfer price, has been made suo motu, or made by the Assessing Officer and accepted by him; or is determined by an advance pricing agreement entered into by him under section 92CC of the Act; or is made as per safe harbour rules prescribed under section 92CB of the Act; or is arising as a result of resolution of an assessment through mutual agreement procedure under an agreement entered into under section 90 or 90A of the Act.

The proviso to said sub-section provides exemption in cases where the amount of primary adjustment made in any previous year does not exceed one crore rupees; and the primary adjustment is made in respect of an assessment year commencing on or before 1st April, 2016.

Several concerns have been expressed regarding effective implementation of secondary adjustments regime and seeking clarity in law.

In order to address such concerns and to make the secondary adjustment regime more effective and easy to comply with, it is proposed to amend section 92CE of the Act so as to provide that:

(i) the condition of threshold of one crore rupees and of the primary adjustment made upto assessment year 2016-17 are alternate conditions;

(ii) the assessee shall be required to calculate interest on the excess money or part thereof;

(iii) the provision of this section shall apply to the agreements which have been signed on or after 1st April, 2017; however, no refund of the taxes already paid till date under the pre amended section would be allowed;

(iv) the excess money may be repatriated from any of the associated enterprises of the assessee which is not resident in India;

(v) in a case where the excess money or part thereof has not been repatriated in time, the assessee will have the option to pay additional income-tax at the rate of eighteen per cent on such excess money or part thereof in addition to the existing requirement of calculation of interest till the date of payment of this additional tax. The additional tax is proposed to be increased by a surcharge of twelve per cent;

(vi) the tax so paid shall be the final payment of tax and no credit shall be allowed in respect of the amount of tax so paid;

(vii) the deduction in respect of the amount on which such tax has been paid , shall not be allowed under any other provision of this Act; and

(viii)if the assessee pays the additional income-tax, he will not be required to make secondary adjustment or compute interest from the date of payment of such tax.

The amendments proposed in para (i) to (iv) above will take effect retrospectively from the 1st April, 2018 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2018-19 and subsequent assessment years.

Further, the amendments proposed in para (v) to (viii) will be effective from 1st September, 2019. [Clause 30]

Concessional rate of Short-term Capital Gains (STCG) tax to certain equity-oriented fund of funds.

In order to incentivise fund of funds set up for disinvestment of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs), Finance Act, 2018 has provided concessional rate of long-term capital gains tax under section 112A of the Act for the transfer of units of such fund of funds.

In order to further incentivise these funds of funds, it is proposed to amend section 111A so as to extend the concessional rate of tax for short-term capital gains in respect of transfer of units of such fund of funds.

This amendment will take effect from 1st April, 2020 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to assessment year 2020-21 and
subsequent assessment years. [Clause 32]

Provide for pass through of losses in cases of Category I and Category II Alternative Investment Fund (AIF)

Section 115UB of the Act, inter alia, provides for pass through of income earned by the Category I and II AIF, except for business income which is taxed at AIF level. Pass through of profits (other than profit & gains from business) has been allowed to individual investors so as to give them benefit of lower rate of tax, if applicable. Pass through of losses are not provided under the existing regime and are retained at AIF level to be carried forward and set off in accordance with Chapter VI.

In order to remove the genuine difficulty faced by Category I and II AIFs , it is proposed to amend section 115UB to
provide that

(i) the business loss of the investment fund, if any, shall be allowed to be carried forward and it shall be set-off by it in accordance with the provisions of Chapter VI and it shall not be passed onto the unit holder;

(ii) the loss other than business loss, if any, shall also be ignored for the purposes of pass through to its unit holders, if such loss has arisen in respect of a unit which has not been held by the unit holder for a period of atleast twelve months;

(iii) the loss other than business loss, if any, accumulated at the level of investment fund as on 31st March, 2019, shall be deemed to be the loss of a unit holder who held the unit on 31st March, 2019 in respect of the investments made by him in the investment fund and allowed to be carried forward by him for the remaining period calculated from the year in which the loss had occurred for the first time taking that year as the first year and it shall be set-off by him in accordance with the provisions of Chapter VI;

(iv) the loss so deemed in the hands of unit holders shall not be available to the investment fund for the purposes of chapter VI. These amendments will take effect from the 1st April, 2020 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2020-21 and subsequent assessment years. [Clause 38]

TDS on non exempt portion of life insurance pay-out on net basis.

Under section 194DA of the Act, a person is obliged to deduct tax at source, if it pays any sum to a resident under a life insurance policy, which is not exempt under sub-section (10D) of section 10. The present requirement is to deduct tax at the rate of one per cent. of such sum at the time of payment. Several concerns have been expressed that deducting tax on gross amount creates difficulties to an assesse who otherwise has to pay tax on net income (i.e after deducting the amount of insurance premium paid by him from the total sum received). From the point of views of tax administration as well, it is preferable to deduct tax on net income so that the income as per TDS return of the deductor can be matched automatically with the return of income filed by the assessee. The person who is paying a sum to a resident under a life insurance policy is aware of the amount of insurance premium paid by the assessee. Hence, it is proposed to provide for tax deduction at source at the rate of five per cent. on income component of the sum paid by the person.

This amendment shall be effective from 1st September, 2019. [Clause 44]

Consequential amendment to section 56

The existing provisions of the section 56 of the Income-tax Act, inter alia, provide that income by way of interest received on compensation or on enhanced compensation referred to in section 145A(b) shall be chargeable to tax. The Finance Act, 2018 substituted the provisions of section 145A with sections 145A and section 145B. However, no consequential amendment is made in section 56. It is proposed to amend section 56 of the Act to provide the correct reference of section 145B(1) in section 56, in place of the existing reference of section 145A(b).

This amendment will take retrospective effect from 1st April, 2017 and will accordingly apply in relation to assessment year 2017-18 and subsequent assessment years. [Clause 21]

Rationalisation of provision relating recovery of tax in pursuance of agreements with foreign countries

The existing provisions of section 228A of the Act provide inter alia that where an agreement is entered into by the Central Government with the Government of any foreign country for recovery of income-tax under the Income-tax Act and the corresponding law in force in that country and where such foreign country sends a certificate for the recovery of any tax due under such corresponding law from a person having any property in India, the Board, on receipt of such certificate may, forward it to the Tax Recovery Officer within whose jurisdiction such property is situated for the recovery of tax in pursuance of agreement with such foreign country.

In order to provide assistance in recovery of tax as per treaty obligation with the other country, it is proposed to amend the said section so as to provide for tax recovery where details of property of the persons are not available but the said person is a resident in India.

It is also proposed to amend the said section so as to provide for tax recovery, where details of property of an assessee in default under the Act are not available but the said assessee is a resident in a foreign country.

These amendments will take effect from 1st September, 2019. [Clause 51]

Rationalisation of the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015

The existing provisions of section 2 of the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015 (the BM Act) provide inter alia that the 'assessee' means a person who is resident in India within the meaning of section 6 of the Income-tax Act.

In order to clarify the legislative intent behind enacting the BM Act, which was to tax such foreign income and assets, which were not charged to tax under the Income-tax Act, it is proposed to amend the said section so as to provide that the 'assessee' shall mean a person being a resident in India within the meaning of section 6 of the Income-tax Act, in the previous year, or a person being a non-resident or not ordinarily resident in India within the meaning of clause (6) of section 6 of the Income-tax Act, in the previous year, who was resident in India either in the previous year to which the income referred to in section 4 relates, or in the previous year in which the undisclosed asset located outside India was acquired. It is also proposed to provide that the previous year of acquisition of the undisclosed asset located outside India shall be determined without giving effect to the provisions of section 72(c) of the BM Act.

Further, a clarificatory amendment is also proposed to be made to section 10 of the BM Act so as to include the expressions 're-assess' and 'reassessment' in sub-section (3) and (4) of the said section.

These amendments will take effect retrospectively from 1st July, 2015. [Clauses 195 & 196]

The existing provisions of the section 84 of the BM Act provide, inter alia, for application of certain provisions of the Income-tax Act to the BM Act with necessary modifications.

Considering the significance of cases assessed under the BM Act, it is proposed to amend the said section so as to provide that the provisions of section 144A of the Income-tax Act shall be applicable to the BM Act with necessary modifications. [Clause 198]
Further, a clarificatory amendment is also proposed to be made in section 17 of the BM Act to clarify that the Commissioner (Appeals) may also vary the penalty order so as to enhance or reduce the penalty.

This amendment will take effect from 1st September, 2019. [Clause 197]

Rationalisation of the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016

The existing provisions of section 187 of the Finance Act, 2016 provide, inter alia, that the tax, surcharge and penalty in respect of the undisclosed income, declared under the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 (the Scheme) shall be paid on or before a notified due date.

In order to address genuine concern of the declarants, it is proposed to amend the said section so as to provide that where the amount of tax, surcharge and penalty, has not been paid within the due date, the Central Government may notify the class of persons who may make the payment of such amount on or before a notified date, along with the interest on such amount, at the rate of one per cent of every month or part of a month, comprised in the period, commencing on the date immediately following the due date and ending on the date of such payment.

Further, the existing section 191 of the Finance Act, 2016 provides, inter alia, that any amount of tax, surcharge or penalty paid in pursuance of a declaration made under the Scheme shall not be refundable.

In order to address genuine concern of the declarants, it is proposed to amend the said section so as to provide that the Central Government may notify the class of persons to whom the amount of tax, surcharge and penalty, paid in excess of the amount payable under the Scheme shall be refundable.

This amendment will take effect retrospectively from 1st June, 2016. [Clauses 199 & 200]

Rationalizing the provisions of the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act

The existing provisions of section 23 of the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act ('the PBPT Act') provide that the Initiating Officer, with the prior approval of the Approving Authority, shall conduct any inquiry or investigation. This power is exercised by the Initiating Officer where no case is pending before him. However, it is not expressly provided in the PBPT Act that the prior approval of Approving Authority shall not be required where the Initiating Officer has already initiated proceedings by issuing notice under section 24(1).

In order to clarify that no prior approval of the Approving Authority would be required in cases where notice under section 24(1) has been issued, it is proposed to suitably amend the provisions of section 23 of the PBPT Act.

This amendment will take effect retrospectively from 1st November, 2016.
[Clause 172]

Further, section 24(3) of the PBPT Act provides for attachment of property for a period of ninety days from the date of issue of notice under section 24(1) of the PBPT Act. Section 24(4) provides for passing of order within ninety days from the date of issuing notice under section 24(1).

In order to rationalize the aforesaid provisions, it is proposed to amend the section 24 so as to provide that the period of ninety days in respect of provisional attachment of the property under section 24(3) and passing of order under section 24(4) shall be reckoned from the end of the month in which the notice under section 24(1) is issued.

This amendment will take effect from 1st day of September, 2019.
[Clause 173]

The existing provisions of section 24(4) of the PBPT Act provide for passing of order by the Initiating Officer, of section 24(5) provide for making of reference by the Initiating Officer and of section 26(7) provide for passing of order by the Adjudicating Authority. However, no exclusion is provided for the period during which the proceedings are stayed by the Court. In order to provide for the exclusion and adequate time to pass the order or make the reference, it is proposed to suitably amend the provisions of sections 24 and 26.

This amendment will take effect from 1st September, 2019.
[Clauses 173 & 174]

With a view to ensure compliance with the summons issued and information required to be furnished under the PBPT Act, it is proposed to insert a new section 54A in the PBPT Act so as to provide for levy of penalty of rupees twenty five thousand for failure to comply with the summons issued or to furnish information under section 19 or section 21 respectively of the PBPT Act.

This amendment will take effect from 1st September, 2019.
[Clause 175]

With a view to enable admissibility of certified copies of records or other documents in the custody of the authority as evidence in any proceeding under the PBPT Act, it is proposed to insert a new section 54B in the said Act so as to provide that entries in the records or other documents in the custody of an authority shall be admitted in evidence in any proceedings for the prosecution of any person for an offence under the PBPT Act.

This amendment will take effect from 1st September, 2019.
[Clause 175]

The existing provisions of the section 55 of the PBPT Act provide that no prosecution shall be instituted against any person in respect of any offence under the said Act without the previous sanction of the Board. With a view to rationalise the provisions, it is proposed to amend the said section so as to provide that no prosecution shall be instituted against any person in respect of any offence under the said Act without the previous sanction of the competent authority.

This amendment will take effect from 1st September, 2019.
[Clause 176]

SERVICE TAX

Note:

(a) 'Service Tax' means the service tax levied under section 66B of the Finance Act, 1994
(b) Amendments carried out through the Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2019 come into effect on the date of its enactment, unless otherwise specified.


S. No.

Retrospective exemptions

Clause of Finance (No.2) Bill, 2019

1

Services provided or agreed to be provided by the State Government by way of grant of liquor licence, against consideration in the form of licence fee or application fee or by whatever name it is called, are proposed to be exempted from service tax for during the period commencing from 1st April, 2016 and ending with the 30th June, 2017.

[116]

2

Services provided or agreed to be provided by the Indian Institutes of Management, as per the guidelines of the Central Government, to their students, by way of the following educational programmes, except Executive Development Programme, -

(a) two-year full time Post Graduate Programmes in Management for the Post Graduate Diploma in Management, to which admissions are made on the basis of Common Admission Test (CAT), conducted by Indian Institute of Management;

(b) fellow programme in Management;

(c) five year integrated programme in Management.

are proposed to be exempted from service tax for during the period commencing from the 1st day of July, 2003 and ending with the 31st day of March, 2016.

[117]

3

Consideration paid in the form of upfront amount (called as premium, salami, cost, price, development charges or by any other name) payable in respect of service, by way of granting of long term lease of thirty years, or more of plots for development of infrastructure for financial business, provided or agreed to be provided by the State Government Industrial Development Corporations or Undertakings or by any other entity having 50% or more ownership of Central Government, State Government, Union Territory to the developers in any industrial or financial business area, is proposed to be exempted from Service Tax for the period commencing from the 1st October, 2013 and ending with the 30th June, 2017.

[118]


Sabka Vishwas Legacy Dispute Resolution Scheme


S. No.

Details of the proposal

Clause of Finance (No.2) Bill, 2019

1

A dispute resolution cum amnesty scheme called the Sabka Vishwas Legacy Dispute Resolution Scheme is being introduced for resolution and settlement of legacy cases of Central Excise and Service Tax

[119-134]


Goods and Services Tax

Note:

(a) CGST Act means Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017
(b) IGST Act means Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017
(c) UTGST Act means Union Territory Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017
(d) Amendments carried out through the Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2019 come into effect on the date of its enactment, unless otherwise specified.

Amendments carried out in the Finance Bill, 2019 will come into effect from the date when the same will be notified, concurrently with the corresponding amendments to the Acts passed earlier by the States & Union territories with legislature.

I. AMENDMENTS IN THE CGST ACT, 2017:


S. No.

Amendment

Clause of the Finance (No.2) Bill, 2019

1

The definition of 'adjudicating authority' in clause (4) of section 2 of the CGST Act is being amended so as to exclude 'the National Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling' (which is being created by various amendments in Chapter XVII of the CGST Act) from the definition of 'adjudicating authority'.

[91]

2

A new sub-section is being inserted in section 10 of the CGST Act to bring in an alternative composition scheme for supplier of services or mixed suppliers (not eligible for the earlier composition scheme) having an annual turnover in preceding financial year upto Rs 50 lakhs. Further, explanation is being added to section 10 to clarify that:

i. for computing the aggregate turnover to determine eligibility for the composition scheme, value of exempt supplies services provided by way of extending deposits, loans or advances in so far as the consideration is represented by way of interest or discount shall not be taken into account; and

ii. for determining the value of turnover in a State or Union territory to calculate tax payable, value of exempt supplies of services provided by way of extending deposits, loans or advances in so far as the consideration is represented by way of interest or discount; and value of the first supplies from 1st of April till the date when the taxpayer becomes liable for registration shall not be taken into account.

[92]

3

A proviso and an explanation is being inserted in section 22 of the CGST Act so as to provide for higher threshold exemption limit from Rs. 20 lakhs to such amount not exceeding Rs. 40 lakhs in case of supplier who is engaged in exclusive supply of goods.

[93]

4

New sub-sections are being inserted in section 25 of the CGST Act to make Aadhaar authentication mandatory for specified class of new taxpayers and to prescribe the manner in which certain class of registered taxpayers are required to undergo Aadhaar authentication.

[94]

5

A new section 31A is being inserted in the CGST Act so that specified suppliers shall have to mandatorily give the option of specified modes of electronic payment to their recipients.

[95]

6

Section 39 of the CGST Act is being amended so as to allow the composition taxpayers to furnish annual return along with quarterly payment of taxes; and other specified taxpayers may be given the option for quarterly or monthly furnishing of returns and payment of taxes under the proposed new return system.

[96]

7

New provisos are being inserted in sub-section (1) of section 44 of the CGST Act so as to empower the Commissioner to extend the due date for furnishing Annual return (prescribed FORM GSTR-9/9A) and reconciliation statement (prescribed FORM GSTR-9C).

[97]

8

New sub-sections are being inserted in section 49 of the CGST Act to provide a facility to the registered person to transfer an amount from one (major or minor) head to another (major or minor) head in the electronic cash ledger.

[98]

9

New proviso in sub-sections (1) is being inserted in section 50 of the CGST Act so as to provide for charging interest only on the net cash tax liability, except in those cases where returns are filed subsequent to initiation of any proceedings under section 73 or 74 of the CGST Act.

[99]

10

New provisos are being inserted in sub-sections (4) and (5) of section 52 of the CGST Act so as to empower the Commissioner to extend the due date for furnishing of monthly and annual statement by the person collecting tax at source.

[100]

11

A new section 53A is being inserted in the CGST Act so as to provide for transfer of amount between Centre and States consequential to amendment in section 49 of the CGST Act allowing transfer of an amount from one head to another head in the electronic cash ledger of the registered person .

[101]

12

New sub-section (8A) is being inserted in section 54 of the CGST Act so as to provide that the Central Government may disburse refund amount to the taxpayers in respect of refund of State taxes as well.

[102]

13

New clause (f) is being inserted in section 95 of the CGST Act to define the 'National Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling'.

[103]

14

New sections 101A, 101B and 101C are being inserted in the CGST Act so as to provide for constitution, qualification, appointment, tenure, conditions of services of the National Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling; to provide for procedures to be followed for hearing appeals against conflicting advance rulings pronounced on the same question by the Appellate Authorities of two or more States or Union territories in case of distinct persons; and to provide that the National Appellate Authority shall pass order within a period of ninety days from the date of filing of the appeal respectively.

[104]

15

Section 102 of the CGST Act is being amended so as to allow the National Appellate Authority to amend any order passed by it so as to rectify any error apparent on the face of the record, within a period of six months from the date of the order, except under certain specified circumstances.

[105]

16

Section 103 of the CGST Act is being amended so as to provide that the advance ruling pronounced by the National Appellate Authority shall be binding, unless there is a change in law or facts, on the applicants, being distinct person and all registered persons having the same Permanent Account Number and on the concerned officers or the jurisdictional officers in respect of the said applicants and the registered persons having the same Permanent Account Number.

[106]

17

Section 104 of the CGST Act is being amended so as to provide that advance ruling pronounced by the National Appellate Authority shall be void where the ruling has been obtained by fraud or suppression of material facts or misrepresentation of facts.

[107]

18

Section 105 of the CGST Act is being amended so as to provide that the National Appellate Authority shall have all the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for the purpose of exercising its powers under the Act.

[108]

19

Section 106 of the CGST Act is being amended so as to provide that the National Appellate Authority shall have power to regulate its own procedure.

[109]

20

Consequent to the amendments in section 44 and section 52 of the CGST Act, section 168 is being amended so as to specify that in respect of sub-section (1) of section 44 and sub- sections (4) and (5) of section 52, Commissioner or Joint Secretary shall exercise the powers specified in the said sections with the approval of the Board.

[110]

21

Section 171 of the CGST Act is being amended so as to empower the National Anti- profiteering Authority (under sub-section (2) of section 171 of the Act) to impose penalty equivalent to 10% of the profiteered amount.

[111]


II. AMENDMENTS IN THE IGST ACT, 2017:


S. No.

Amendment

Clause of the Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2019

1

A new section 17A is being inserted in the IGST Act so as to bring into the Act, provisions for transfer of amount between Centre and States consequential to amendment in section 49 of the CGST Act allowing transfer of an amount from one head to another head in the electronic cash ledger of the registered person.

[113]


III. Retrospective Amendments of GST rate notifications


S. No.

Amendment

Clause of the Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2019

1

Notification No. 2/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated the 28th June, 2017, issued under sub- section (1) of section 11 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, is being amended retrospectively so as to exempt 'Uranium Ore Concentrate' from the levy of Central Tax from 1st July, 2017 to 14th November, 2017.

[112]

2

Notification No. 2/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate) dated the 28th June, 2017, issued under sub- section (1) of section 6 of the Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, is being amended retrospectively so as to exempt 'Uranium Ore Concentrate' from the levy of Integrated Tax from 1st July, 2017 to 14th November, 2017.

[114]

3

Notification No. 2/2017-Union Territory Tax (Rate) dated the 28th June, 2017, issued under sub-section (1) of section 8 of the Union Territory Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, is being amended retrospectively so as to exempt 'Uranium Ore Concentrate' from the levy of Union Territory Tax from 1st July, 2017 to 14th November, 2017.

[115]








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