Sfm query

hello gopal...,, I dnt have bala sir book.. if u can provide the question I vl try to help u

c if its 1$=Rs 45/47 then 1 Rs=$1/47=bid rate and1Rs=$ 1/45 will be ask rate.its jst an example,may b it helps.

otherwise plz post the exact question

Problem

You are in new York. The Spot $/ £ rate is 1.5865-84. The 12 months forward rate is 1.5443-1.5463. The T-bill rate in US 5% while in UK is 8%

(a)    If u Invest £ 25000 in UK, by simultaneously taking a 12 months forward contract how much will you gain or loss

Solution :-

Invest in Dollar

Invest in pound

In part 1 ask rate is used

While in 2 Bid rate is used

hey c what i understood is that u'll invest 25000 pound at 8%,so at maturity u get 27000 pound nw u will sell 27000 pound to bank to get dollars so bank will purchase at its bid rate i.e 1.5443.

according to the rule bank sells dearer but purchases cheap.

in first part u had to invest in dollars so u had to convert pound to dollar so it used ask rate and in second case u hv to invest in pound and u already hv pound so u will convert maturity value of pound to dollar so it used bid rate

firstly i don understand why u ve to invest in $ wen its specifically given invest in pound

1)Borrow  (to invest 25000 pound *1.5884( cos market maker is gonna sell at high & buy @ low))=39710$

2)For making use of $ u ve to pay for time value of money 39710$*5%+=41695.5$

3)invest in pound simultaneously @ 8% *25000 pounds=27000pound

4)Now boss u r in new york...i think u cant do anything with pound which u gonna recieve after 12 months.

sell it right now @ forward rate(catch hold principle market maker will sell @ high buy @ low),u r selling pound so gotta pick1.5443..

so $ ull be recivng @ the end of 12 months 27000$*1.5443=41696.1

so Arbitage=41696.1$-41695.5$=0.6$

Originally posted by : ashima
	in first part u had to invest in dollars so u had to convert pound to dollar so it used ask rate and in second case u hv to invest in pound and u already hv pound so u will convert maturity value of pound to dollar so it used bid rate

but as per the question and solution in two cases " you have pounds" . i agree with gopal that bid is relevant as we are investing in dollars by converting pounds i.e SELLING POUNDS FOR DOLLARS" so we are selling banker has to buy so bid is relevant as bank buys at lower rate.

C I don’t have an expert way to xplain,but c Let’s take it from the top

U r in new York Where spot rate is 1.5865-1.5884 Forward rate is 1.5443-1.5463

Nw u hv 25000 pounds when u will invest in UK u’ll hv to convert it to $ i.e 25000*1.5884 (spot ask rate)=$39710

Int rate in US is 5 %

So at maturity u’ll receive $(39710+5%)=$41696

II…u’ll take forward cover on 25000 pound ,int rate 8% Maturity value 25000+8%=27000 pounds

Nw to c whether there is any arbitrage gain or not,u got to convert 27000 pound to dollar,so u’ll sell it to bank to get $ at its bid rate i.e 27000*1.5443=41696$

Hence no gain.

I hope I hv made myself clear.hope it helps