problem of Law

yes A is liable for the voilation of agreement But if The Govt takes the assets under compulsory aquisition  & it was above the control of  mr. A  even then he is liable towards Mr.B. however he can claim to Govt. for compensation.

 Yes i think shambu nath is right

ya me 2 thinking...

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If property being discussed is Immovable Property then A will be liable to B for spcific compensation.

i m agree with all ......

A will be liable ...

but at the same time  govt. should also give compensation to A to terminate the contract with B..

as in ma point of view

A IS NOT LIBALE TO B AS PER INDIAN CONTRACT ACT. IF B HAS NOT TAKEN THE POSSESSION. 

A is liable to B only for compensation becaus both the parties are not know before entering of agrement relating to goods.B claim compensation from A and A claim loss from Govt.

In the case of illegal assocation of a company the members are liable  ?  which amount is liable pls tele me ???

Originally posted by : vishal
	A made an agreement to sell with B but before transfer of property goods are taken by Govt. for it's use wheathere A is liable to B

A is not liable for specific performance due to the acq. by govt.  but can cliam for the compensation with givt.