Fm doubt

Final 1197 views 4 replies
Hi! I need some help in foreign exchange risk management. The sum is as follows: X ltd, an Indian company has bought goods worth Yen 100 lacs & has to make payment in exporter's home currency. The following rates are available: INR = $ 0.025 - $0.02 GBP= $1.40 - $ 1.48 YEN = GBP0.0069 - GBP0.0049 You are required to calculate the INR cost of the deal today. I am getting the answer as Rs 48,30,000 however the answer given is Rs 51,06,000 which I feel is wrong. Please confirm which of the answers is right. Also if i'm wrong then plz explain why.
Replies (4)
0.0069*1.4/0.02=0.483 yes your ans is correct.

the answer is correct .

you have to buy yen means you will buy at the ask rate.

your required  quote will be INR/YEN = 0.2744/0.5106

so buying cost of Yen will be 100 lacs*0.5106 =  Rs.51,06,000

sorry abhishek ...

answer of Dipika is wrong ...

we have to calculate ans as per market convention ...

so our ask rate will be

1/0.020 * 1.48* 0.0069

as market always sell at higher rate and buys at low rate.

 

U r absolutely spot on Deepika.   Bid rate of Bank is always lower and Offer /ask higher.

It wud be better if first the rates are recast in correct form as below:

INR = $ 0.020 - $0.025 

Þ $= INR 1/.025-     1/.020

GBP= $1.40 - $ 1.48

 YEN = GBP0.0049 - GBP0.0069

Since for import customer has to buy the  Yen it will be at the market offer rate:

 INR/Yen offer =  Multiply all the offer rates= 1/.020 × 1.48×.0069=.5106


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