Yes. It will be transfer as on the date and stamp duty value or the value paid as alimony, whichever higher, will be taken as sell value.
Whether alimony was awarded in terms of any capital asset?
Isn't It a barter exchange?
What is court order? To give capital asset?
Or any amount awarded first?
Generally courts give such option only when husband would have prayed for his inability to pay cash. How can court ask directly to give away any personal asset without offered for?
Capital gains liability would arise as transfer deed will be registered at circle rate.
Sub-sec 2(47)(ii) .... w.r.t. explanation 2 therein.
(ii) the extinguishment of any rights therein ; ....
Explanation 2.—For the removal of doubts, it is hereby clarified that "transfer" includes and shall be deemed to have always included disposing of or parting with an asset or any interest therein, or creating any interest in any asset in any manner whatsoever, directly or indirectly, absolutely or conditionally, voluntarily or involuntarily, by way of an agreement (whether entered into in India or outside India) or otherwise, notwithstanding that such transfer of rights has been characterised as being effected or dependent upon or flowing from the transfer of a share or shares of a company registered or incorporated outside India;
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