Section.40(a)(ia)

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im asking in relation to A.Y. 2014-2015.

sec.(40)(a)(ia) says that expense will not be allowed in a particular P.Y, if either TDS is not deducted in the P.Y. or TDS is deducted in the P.Y. but not paid with time timit u/s 139(1) i.e due date of filing of ROI. 

further if TDS is deducted in subsequent year or TDS is deducted in the previous year but paid in subsequent year after due date of filling of ROI, then expense will be allowed, in the year in which TDS is paid to govt.

further where assesee failed to deduct the TDS and by virtue of proviso to section 201(1), he is not treated as assessee in default, he shall be deemed to  have DEDUCTED AND PAID THE TAX ON THE DATE ROI FILED BY RESIDENT PAYEE U/S 139.

( IM NOT ASKING ANY DIFFERENCE ON PAID OR PAYBLE, NOR IM ASKING FOR ROI FILLED BY RESIDENT PAYEE SHOULD BE ON HIS DUE DATE OR NOT)

NOW MY QUETION IS:

WHEN TDS IS NOT DEDUCTED AND ASSESSEE IS NOT CONSIDERED AS ASSESSEE IN DAFAULT BY VIRTUE OF PROV. TO SEC 201(1), THEN HE IS DEEMED TO HAVE DEDUCTED AND PAID TDS ON THE DATE ROI FILLED BY RESIDENT PAYEE

THEREBY IS CLEAR TO UNDERSTAND IN THIS CASE THAT ASSESSEE WILL BE ALLOWED DEDUCTION OF EXPENSE IN SUBSEQUENT YEAR IN EVERY CASE , SINCE HE IS DEEDMED TO HAVE DEDUCTED TDS IN SUBSEQUENT YEAR WHEN RESIDENT PAYEE FILED ROI AND HE IS DEEMED TO HAVE PAID TDS ON THE SAME DATE.

Replies (1)

Dear Sachin

It is an interesting question. 

The ultimate aim of Govt through tax laws is to collect the dues from the assessees. So, once the Govt. acheives its purpose, there is no pointing in levying interest blindly following the laws made. 

Here also, the purpose of Disallowance under Sec.40(a)(ia) and interest under Sec. 201(1A) is (and always was) to collect the taxes. When the taxes due Govt reaches its coffers whether through the deductor or the deductee, its objective is acheived.

Also, as explained in the Budget Memorandum 2012, as per Sec.191, whenever the deductor fails to make TDS from the payment, the deductee is still liable to pay the tax "directly" to the Govt. and that the deductor will be considered as an assessee in default as long as the deductee too has failed to pay tax "directly". That means, this amendement is more of a rationalisation of TDS provision by providing in the act how to give the full meaning to Sec.191. You will get a better idea if you read the Memorandum to the budget i have attached herewith.

We may wonder if thorugh this provision, the Sec.40(a)(ia) is partly redundant as the expenses will be allowed subsequent year. 

Firstly, the focus is not disallowance but compliance and collection of tax.

Secondly, we can envisage an extreme situation when neither the deductor deducts TDS and pays nor the Payee assessee files his Return in which case there will be a permanent disallowance.

Thirdly, this section still can persuade the deductor to deduct TDS or atleast ensure that the payee has paid "directly". Othewise, his othewise eligible expense would either get postponed to subsequent years for deduction or in extreme cases as mentioned above, could even become a permanent disallowance.

Regards

Ajay

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