Pls solve this

1806 views 4 replies

 

ABC Ltd. has 50,000 outstanding shares.  The current market price per share is Rs.100 each.  It hopes to make a net income of Rs.5,00,000 at the end of current year.  The Company’s Board is considering a dividend of Rs.5 per share at the end of current financial year.  The company needs to raise Rs.10,00,000 for an approved investment expenditure.  The company belongs to a risk class for which the capitalization rate is 10%.  Show, how does the M-M approach affect the value of firm if the dividends are paid or not paid.

(6 Marks) (November, 2006)

Answer

When dividends are paid

 

100 = (5 + P1)/(1 + 0.10)

Therefore, P1 = Rs.105/-.

Value of firm

= Rs.([50,000/-+7,50,000/-/105/-) x 105/-] – 10,00,000/- + 5,00,000/-)/1.10

= Rs.(60,00,000/- - 5,00,000/-)/1.10

= Rs.50,00,000/-.

When dividend is not paid

100 = 1/1.1 x P1

Therefore, P1 = Rs.110/-.

Value of firm

= Rs.([50,000/- +(5,00,000/-/110/-) x 110/-] – 10,00,000/-+5,00,000/-)/1.10

= Rs.(60,00,000/- - 5,00,000/-) / 1.10

= Rs.50,00,000/-

M.M. approach indicates that the value of the firm in both the situations will be the same.

Replies (4)

 

When dividends are paid

 

100 = (5 + P1)/(1 + 0.10)

Therefore, P1 = Rs.105/-.


 

When dividend is not paid

100 = 1/1.1 x P1

Therefore, P1 = Rs.110/-.

 

                                       Dividends paid        Dividends not paid

 

Investments                           10,00,000                   10,00,000

Net profit                         5,00,000                             5,00,000

- Dividend                      2,50,000                                    -

                                                               2,50,000                               5,00,000

                                                                7,50,000                             5,00,000

Market value                                              105                                         110

No of new equity shares                       7143                                      4545

Existing shares                                     50000                                    50000

Total shares                                           57143                                    54545

Market value of firm      57143*105 = 60,00,000                         54545*110= 60,00,000

 

 

 

 

 

 

I m facing same prob. 

I think in 2nd ques. value is calculated by market capitalization nd in 1st ques. value is calculated by M & M approach.

 

Dear both r one n the same.......

Both r just diff ways of showing MM..........

U should follow 1st one bcoz compile n module r following the same one......

 

I think in 2nd ques. value is calculated by market capitalization nd in 1st ques. value is calculated by M & M approach.


CCI Pro

Leave a Reply

Your are not logged in . Please login to post replies

Click here to Login / Register