Form i

VAT (Legacy) 600 views 2 replies

Ashish Kumar

Manager

25 Points Posted on 19 August 2011

Pls clarify for the given below scenario:-

Party "A" located in the state of Karnatka

Party "B" located in the state of Maharastra

Party " C" (SEZ Developer) located in the state of Tamil Nadu.

Party "A" received an order from Party "B" , where the Bill to will be Party "B" and Ship To will be Party "C"

In the above scenarion is it possible for Party "C" (which is an sez developer) to issue form "I" to Party "A" and party will charge CST 0%.

Regards

Replies (2)

Prakash T c

Executive

194 Points Posted on 23 August 2011

The orginal buyer only can issue form C, form I is a statement showing the Cst sales & purchases.

where the buyer is b and instructed to deliver the goods to C. so actual buyer will be B only.

Originally posted by : Ashish Kumar

Pls clarify for the given below scenario:-

Party "A" located in the state of Karnatka

Party "B" located in the state of Maharastra

Party " C" (SEZ Developer) located in the state of Tamil Nadu.

Party "A" received an order from Party "B" , where the Bill to will be Party "B" and Ship To will be Party "C"

In the above scenarion is it possible for Party "C" (which is an sez developer) to issue form "I" to Party "A" and party will charge CST 0%.

Regards