Pls clarify for the given below scenario:-
Party "A" located in the state of Karnatka
Party "B" located in the state of Maharastra
Party " C" (SEZ Developer) located in the state of Tamil Nadu.
Party "A" received an order from Party "B" , where the Bill to will be Party "B" and Ship To will be Party "C"
In the above scenarion is it possible for Party "C" (which is an sez developer) to issue form "I" to Party "A" and party will charge CST 0%.
Regards
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The orginal buyer only can issue form C, form I is a statement showing the Cst sales & purchases. where the buyer is b and instructed to deliver the goods to C. so actual buyer will be B only.
Originally posted by : Ashish Kumar |
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Pls clarify for the given below scenario:- Party "A" located in the state of Karnatka Party "B" located in the state of Maharastra Party " C" (SEZ Developer) located in the state of Tamil Nadu. Party "A" received an order from Party "B" , where the Bill to will be Party "B" and Ship To will be Party "C" In the above scenarion is it possible for Party "C" (which is an sez developer) to issue form "I" to Party "A" and party will charge CST 0%. Regards |
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Party A Sells the product and charge CST @ 2% to Party B.
Right now B Sells the product without charge of CST. The party issue Form -I to Party B.
Thanking You
Sunil Kumar choudhary
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