CA FINAL F.R. VALUATION OF GOODWIL & SHARES Total Replies : 3

Final 1304 views 13 replies

Sorry, I have 4 long queries in this chapter and found after solving all the materials of ICAI.(SM PM & COMPILATION).
1)When we have to take cl.capital employed or avg.capital employed in super profit method.In some sums ICAI provides note that any alternative you can take.But in majority sums there is no note.

2)If current assets are revalued,then whether it's impact not goes to FMP calculation.In June 2009 sum Rampal Ltd.effect is not given.

3)In the same afore said sum ,why income from non trade investment is reduced from PBT for calculation of valuation of shares.It is reduced only for valuation of goodwill & not for share valuation.MP Vijay Kumar sir had also done same method.why????

4)In the same sum for calculation of Net assets available for eq.shareholders investment is taken at cost ???.It should be at market value as we are taking all the assets at market value then why not investment.MV is given in question.


  RITU SINGH     05 January
2018
Hello Girish..it seems u have not taken any class..in Files section of CA student app there is notes of financial reporting by Me Imran dated 12th October 2017.kindly downloaded..may b it helps. 


  RITU SINGH     05 January 2018it's Md Imran


  girishramjimange     07 January 2018
Ritu-Ji I have notes with me of JK Shah.They stick to their methods.My actual query I think you had not got ,that ICAI 's solutions are not stick to it's methods.They had done above said errors and not followed the method in some solution,which in fact they had given to us via Module.
I want to know that in above said type of sums we have to do as per solutions of ICAI or stick to correct solutions with assumption. 
Whether ICAI will give marks to our answers with our assumptions???? 
Sorry I had paste all the convesation here,as wrongly I press like ..

Replies (13)
in 3rd no.
Goodwill are find on operating basis and as we know non trade investment are not operating (engaged)in our own business. but in case of share you know shareholders are owner and whichever company will earn either operating or non operating ultimate go to shareholders
that's why.
in ist
you should prefer always average
but if no opening it means closing and opening are same .
and concepts of ICAI are as like as our teacher teach us the only difference is of presentation.
in second
FMP means fair market price??

I have created a video explaining which capital to be used in different scenario. Below is the link -

 

https://youtu.be/jBTmietpoQU

Please check and let me know if you have any queries.

Read more at: https://www.caclubindia.com/forum/goodwill-valuation-closing-capital-vs-avg-capital-employed-387929.asp

Vijay Laxmi -Ji, i also want to say same thing which you explained me in point no.3.Shareholders will earn income from operating as well as non operating income both.Then why in this sum ICAI had taken profits which are taken for calculation of goodwill in calculation of valuation of shares.In goodwill valuation it is correct that income from non operating investment we have to reduce ,but in shares we have to add back that non operating income as shareholders entitles profits from both incomes operating as well as non operating.
Vijay Laxmi -Ji, i also want to say same thing which you explained me in point no.3.Shareholders will earn income from operating as well as non operating income both.Then why in this sum ICAI had taken profits which are taken for calculation of goodwill in calculation of valuation of shares.In goodwill valuation it is correct that income from non operating investment we have to reduce ,but in shares we have to add back that non operating income as shareholders entitles profits from both incomes operating as well as non operating.
Vijay Laxmi -Ji, i also want to say same thing which you explained me in point no.3.Shareholders will earn income from operating as well as non operating income both.Then why in this sum ICAI had taken profits which are taken for calculation of goodwill in calculation of valuation of shares.In goodwill valuation it is correct that income from non operating investment we have to reduce ,but in shares we have to add back that non operating income as shareholders entitles profits from both incomes operating as well as non operating.
in 2 FMP means Future maintainable profit.If any overvaluation and undervaluation of current assets is there then we give effect to FMP ,but for devaluation of current assets we does not give effect in FMP ???
sorry ,I am not saying ICAI 'S concepts are incorrect,but they does not stick with it only.Diffrent methodology applied to certain sums,but they should give some reasoning or assumption for that change.
I want say only that.
Infact all the authors or teachers invent their methods from ICAI 's method only.
Thanks a lot Vijay Laxmi -Ji & Gopal sir.

Hii every body. 

 even i have same query  why reduction in stock and debtors { considered as bad debts } not given effect to??

llr when preference dividend has to be deducted while calculating Intrinsic vale. IM refering MPV book

 

plz reply

stock and debtors effect is not given because read the line of profit given..
it is avg. profits after all the adjustments that is all the adjustments effect is given.
it is different sum from other sums...


CCI Pro

Leave a Reply

Your are not logged in . Please login to post replies

Click here to Login / Register