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534 Points
Joined October 2009
Dear Swati,
What Amolbhai has referred to is absolutely correct. There cannot be any disallowance in respect of depreciation because what Section 40(A)(3) says is that where assessee incurs any expenditure in respect of which payment or aggregate of payments........ and so on.. This means that there has to be cash outflow in the year in which the expenditure is claimed. Of course in the year of purchase the depreciation will be disallowed. However in subsequent years no disallowance can take place because no payment (i.e. cash outflow) has taken place.
As of my view the view taken by Dr. Singhania in Taxmann's Direct tax professional version book is not tennable in view of the aforesaid explanation...
Hope this clears the doubt...
Regards
Chintan