For IDT I m using book of VS Datey Sir, where in the following become typical to me undetstand So I need help
In IDT Law and Practice 28th Edition At page 46 Just below the table is has been mentioned
If the selling dealer pays central sales tax (either at concessional rate of 2% or normal rate) he is eligible to avail all his input tax credit.
In IDT Law and Practice at Page 47 Para 3.1-4 this is mentioned
If a dealer purchases inputs and capital goods from outside the state, the selling dealer (who is from outside the state) will charge CST. The purchaser cannot avail input Tax credit of such CST.
what is the difference between both the assumptions either there is any typing mistake or something technical not understood by me.
Even in the examples Datey Sir, has not taken the benefit of CST and included the same in the cost of purchase even dealer is paying CST.
CAclubindia
