Help me for solving this question

applying Gordon Dividend Model, the answers will be as follows:

1) P0 =60; D0=4; Ke=12%; g=?? D1=D0(1+g)

Now, P0= D1/(Ke-g)

Solving by putting values, you will get g=5%

2) Let intial price of share be Rs. P

Thus dividend payable comes out to be 0.05P

Now put these values in above formula, you will get g=7%

3) D1= EPS x (1-retention ratio)

=>D1=10(1-0.6) = Rs.4

Ke=15%

Now g=retention ratio * ROE i.e. 60*10% =6%

Put these values in above formula to get value of share = Rs. 44.44

4) As explained above g=retention ratio * ROE

Thus 6%=30 * ROE

Solving you get ROE=20%

Now EPS of current year = diving expected to be paid / (1-retention ratio)

i.e EPS = 7/70% = 10

growth rate= 6%, thus EPS next year will be 10*106% =Rs. 10.60

Thanks Varun