If he accepts the bill in GSTR 1A, it would automatically imply that it is a B2B sale and the same should affect the ultimate liability of the supplier and get reflected in liability of GSTR 3.
I think he will be able to rectify it in future return only.
Also the ques arises, if he accepts 1A then it'll update his GSTR1 automatically.
Resulting in dulicate invoice no. or it may be over written.
Can some expert clarify this issue?
Naveen Fintech Pvt Ltd
Kolkata
CA Inter
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CAclubindia
