As per sec55(2)(b)(iii), cost of acquisition of an asset received
during liquidation of a company in the hands of the shareholder for the
purpose of calculating capital gain on the transfer of such asset
subsequently shall be taken as the FMV as on the date on which such
asset was received by the shareholder from the company.
But then as per sec49(1), the cost of the asset in the hands of
shareholder received on liquidation of the company shall be deemed to
be the cost to the previous company & i.e. the company which went
into liquidation.
Can anybody help me in clarifying that either these sections are contradictory or I missed something???