Chartered Accountant
214 Points
Posted on 14 January 2015
Sorry for the above reply, I got the question wrong:
Please find an apt response to you question which I found on the internet:
While incorporating sub-section 2 to section 45, the legislature has not visualized the situation in other way round, where stock-in-trade is to be converted into the investment and later on the investment is sold on profit. In the absence of a specific provision to deal with this type of situation, a rational formula should be worked out to deal with this type of situation, two formulas can be evolved to work out the profits and gains on transfer of assets. One Formula which had been adopted by the assessing officer, i.e., difference between the book value of the shares and the market value of the shares on the date of conversion, be taken as a business income and the difference between the sale price of the shares and the market value of the shares on the date of conversion, be taken as capital gain. The other formula which was adopted by the assessee, i.e., the difference between the sale price of the shares and the cost of acquisition of share, which was the book value on the date of conversion with indexation from the date of conversion, should be computed as a capital gain. In the absence of a specific provision, out of these two formulas, the formula which was favorable to the assessee, should be accepted. Therefore, the Commissioner (Appeals) had properly examined this issue in the present situation and directed the Assessing officer to accept the capital gain offered by assessee. Hence, the order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals) deserved to be upheld [ACIT v Brisght Star Investment (P.) Ltd. (2008) 24 SOT 288 (Mum)]