My client is a new software company (turnover > 1 cr) in India (2 Individual shareholders) and their sole (100%) client is a US company with whom they have a cost + mark up contract for development of software. Few words in the names of the US company and Indian company are similar (first name same) but shareholding is different and no control/decision/voting powers or inter company loans exists.
Only relationship is that one of the shareholder of the US company and the Director of the Indian company are related (Indian director is brother in law of US shareholder). Would that make the US company a AE of Indian company? Would 92E and form 3CEB become applicable? Anythought or inputs would be appreciated.
Indian operations are solely run on the outsourced software development work for US company and margin earned thereof. Would 92E and form 3CEB become applicable?