My grammar is 💯 good I
7296 Points
Joined March 2019
But, I believe you can understand, an instruments acts as a liability to one entity and the same is an asset to another. However, I’m not sure if how a liability is converted. Maybe
Bank 100000000
To debenture Liability 100000000
supposing it is revalued down to 9900000, then
By Debenture Liability 1,00,00,000
To Bank 99,00,000
To Profit on redemption 1,00,000
I think this is the way it should work out in the issuers books as gains and losses are recognised through FVTPL. But why would a company trade with debt instruments apart from banks for securitisation purposes? Do you have any other suggestions?