| Originally posted by : Vijay Manwani | ||
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1.45000 2. tell u in a minute |
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Ans given is 47500
For Q 2
Ans is D - 18,478
| Originally posted by : Vijay Manwani | ||
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Let me calculate just roughly said Year1 40-5=35000 Year2 50+10=60000 So G/W=95000/2=47500 Sorry bro |
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Ans is 47500 How did u get??
Thanx A Lot
it would be 47500
1st year normal profit 40000- 5000(abnormal gain)
2nd year normal profit 50000+ 10000(abnormal loss)
average profit 47500
goodwill 47500
answer :
1) the question asked is only avg profit not normal profit.so do avg calculatio on the given amount answer is
45000
2) dep is to be charged 10% on ( 20000+500=20500)=2050 i.e 20500-2050=18450
ans for q2 is cost=20000 dep for first 6 mnts
20000*10%*6/12 = 1000
for next 6 mnts
19300*10%*6/12 = 965
total dep 1965
cost of machine 20500-1965=18535
sry if its wrong
ans for q2 is cost=20000 dep for first 6 mnts
20000*10%*6/12 = 1000
for next 6 mnts
19300*10%*6/12 = 965
total dep 1965
cost of machine 20500-1965=18535
sry if its wrong
CAclubindia
