Dear Professinal Colleagues,
Say Mr.X in DTA sell goods to Mr Y in SEZ without payment of excise duty. Now will he able to get credit of duty paid on Input(say Rs.20 excise duty born by him at the time of procuring the input) also if he has sold goods to SEZ without duty?(is Rule 6(5) of cenvat credit rule try to say this) If yes then wouldn't it be double benefit? Please answer as early as possible.


