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Almaz Impex Ltd. an Indian Company took a foreign currency loan of US $ 5,00,000 @ 10% p.a. on 1-1-2009. Interest is payable half - yearly with an instalment for principal of US $ 50000. The company closes books of accounts as on 31st March every year. Exchange Rates are:

01/01/2009   - 42.25

31/03/2009  - 42.50

30/06/2009 - 42.90

31/12/2009 - 43.90

31/03/2010 - 43.50

what will the exchange fluctuation loss/gain for the F. Y. ended on  31/03/09 & 31/03/10 respectively.

ANS : Loss Rs. 1,25,000 (31/03/2009) & Loss Rs. 4,95,000 (31/03/2010)

How this solution is arrived, please please help me in this fast i have my exam in coming nov.

Replies (4)

1.500000*(42.25-42.5)=(125000)

 

2. loan paid half yearly it means 30 sep and 31 march
not
june and december

so take the avg of 42.90 and 43.90 then deduct 42.50 from this and multiply by 50000 = 45000

then 50000 * (43.50 - 42.50)= 50000
and
4 lac * (43.50 - 42.50)=400000

so 400000+50000+45000=(495000)

the answer is wrong ....loss for next year is 490000 instead of 495000

how the amount of 400000 lakh rs. came ??

NO, Answer is absolutely Correct. I think you incurred a mistake.

 


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