Dear Sir, My query is that when notarised agreement of sale of immovable property is executed in Gujarat and it contains a clause that whole sales consideration has been paid to the seller, then is the date of agreement of sale is considered as date of transfer of property for capital gain tax purpose or the date of sale deed is considered?
Whether it makes any difference if this agreement of sale does not contain the clause that whole of the sale consideration has been paid to the seller?
Please reply. It is urgent.
Thanks in advance.
CAclubindia
