in a case where the Reverse charge machanism apply,
1. If the provider of services lavied ST in his bill even if 100% liability is of reciepient ?
2. Provider lavied 100% of ST even if the 25% & 75% bearing criteria is there.?
whether the recipient paid ST amount to the vendor what he lavied or create a liability of service tax as per machanism?
or need to take fresh bill from vendor?
CAclubindia
