in a case where the Reverse charge machanism apply,
1. If the provider of services lavied ST in his bill even if 100% liability is of reciepient ?
2. Provider lavied 100% of ST even if the 25% & 75% bearing criteria is there.?
whether the recipient paid ST amount to the vendor what he lavied or create a liability of service tax as per machanism?
or need to take fresh bill from vendor?
Hi
In all cases Invoices are need to be revised...
Even if you paid total amount of the bill inclusive of service tax to the vendor, your liability under Reverse Charge Mechanism will remain same. You have to pay to the government your portion of service tax.
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