Dipen (article) (434 Points)
16 February 2013
If a house is purchase in joint names and the agreement is silent on share of each owner then can it be assumed as 50% share i.e equal in case of 2 co-owners.....even if entire payment is made from one of the owners??
Pawan Mittal
(CA Final)
(702 Points)
Replied 26 March 2013
SkDash
(CS (Member) CWA (Final))
(909 Points)
Replied 30 March 2013
if you can prove that the consideration is paid 100% by one party and there is no other consideration by 2nd, the case can be different.
CAclubindia
