If a house is purchase in joint names and the agreement is silent on share of each owner then can it be assumed as 50% share i.e equal in case of 2 co-owners.....even if entire payment is made from one of the owners??
If a house is purchase in joint names and the agreement is silent on share of each owner then can it be assumed as 50% share i.e equal in case of 2 co-owners.....even if entire payment is made from one of the owners??
if you can prove that the consideration is paid 100% by one party and there is no other consideration by 2nd, the case can be different.
Aggarwal Sarawagi and Co
New Delhi
CA
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Naveen Fintech Pvt Ltd
Kolkata
CA Inter
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