Travel agent booking visa for passanger to different countires on behlaf of their sub agents, for doing this process he rely on Main Agent who is authorized for it, however the Main Agent is giving the bill in the name of Passanger and not in the name of Travel Agent (Travel Agent requested many times, but he (Main Agent) is ready to give only on Passanger name). He is settling all his payment to Main Agent through cash mode.
Travel Agent raised an invoice for the actual expenses incurred by him to Sub Agent along with his Service charge. In GSTR1 he is mentioning the VISA fee as exempt, However to book the Visa expense, he doesn't have any bills on his company name, the bills are in the passangers name. Here his revenue his quite high without the actual expenses incurred. Travel agent cant get cash also from his sub agent, because they are all in different states. So it is impossible. In this scenario, can he book a cash voucher for the actual exp barred by him to Main Agent by attaching the bills acknowledged in the name of passanger. When scruitny comes he can show that he has raised invoice for the respective passanger for that he actually incurred exp. I know, booking exp without company name in the bill is incorrect, but in this situation what is the ideal choice? My point of view is right? Please clarify in this regard.
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