Foreign Salary Income Taxability

Tax queries 11552 views 19 replies

Hello, I work for an Indian IT company and was transferred to its UK subsidiary on work visa. I came to UK on 30-Jan-2010 and have been getting paid salary in UK and the indian salary is completely stopped. Tax is deducted on my salary in UK. My questions:

1. While computing my income tax liability for the period Apr 2009 - Mar 2010, will the income earned in UK be added to the taxable income in India for the said period?

2. If the answer to above question is yes, can I claim HRA (for the rent paid by me in UK)?

3. If the answer to first question is yes, then for how many years will my UK income continue to be taxable in India? My understanding is that I can claim credit for the tax already paid in UK while arriving at tax liability in India, correct?

Any help would be highly appreciated. Thanks.

Replies (19)

If your tax is deducted on salary in UK, you need not pay tax in India under DTAA between UK & India.

1. If you are resident according to residential status then the income accrued and received outside india is taxable.

2.same as above

3.no, he cannot claim tds in india.

Originally posted by : Rajesh

1. If you are resident according to residential status then the income accrued and received outside india is taxable.

2.same as above

3.no, he cannot claim tds in india.

 I am in no position to dispute your views with evidence but it does not seem to align with the general perception. None of my senior colleagues (with whom I have checked) have paid tax on their UK income in India, potentiall for the reasons as ignorance or lack of knowledge, but also citing that as per India-UK DTAA, salary income which is earned in UK and for which tax has been paid in UK, does not incur in tax liability in India.

I would request other seniors CAs to confirm on this.

 

 

Dear Girish

 

Although I am not senior CA but would like to take this opportunity to answer your queries.

 

I understand that, for Financial Year 2009-10, you are ordinary resident in India and your world Income shall be taxable in India.

 

Replies to your queries:

 

1. While computing my income tax liability for the period Apr 2009 - Mar 2010, will the income earned in UK be added to the taxable income in India for the said period?

 

Reply: Yes, however, you may be out of tax provision in UK provided you/your terms of employment satisfies all the below given conditions of Article 16 (2) of Indo-UK DTAA:

 

 

Extract of Indo-UK DTAA

 

ARTICLE 16 Dependent personal services - 1. Subject to the provisions of Article 17 (Directors’ fees), 18 (Artistes and athletes), 19 (Governmental remuneration and pensions), 20 (Pensions and annuities), 21 (Students and trainees) and 22 (Teachers) of this Convention, salaries, wages and other similar remuneration derived by a resident of a Contracting State (India) in respect of an employment shall be taxable only in that State unless the employment is exercised in the other Contracting State (UK). If the employment is so exercised, such remuneration as is derived therefrom may be taxed in that other State.

2. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph 1 of this Article, remuneration derived by a resident of a Contracting State (India) in respect of an employment exercised in the other Contracting State (UK) shall not be taxed in that other State (UK) if :

  (a)  he is present in the other State (UK) for a period or periods not exceeding in the aggregate 183 days during the relevant fiscal year; (I believe you does satisfy this condition)

  (b)  the remuneration is paid by, or on behalf of, an employer who is not resident of that other State (UK); (May be on  behalf of your Indian holding company) and 

  (c)  the remuneration is not deductible in computing the profits of an enterprise chargeable to tax in that other State (UK). (In other words, remuneration paid to you is accounted in the books of Indian holding company)


 

 

2. If the answer to above question is yes, can I claim HRA (for the rent paid by me in UK)?

 

Reply: Yes provided you meet with the conditions/restrictions mentioned u/s. 10(13A) read with Rule 2A

 

 

Extract of Income Tax Act 1961

Section 10

(13A) any special allowance specifically granted to an assessee by his employer to meet expenditure actually incurred on payment of rent (by whatever name called) in respect of residential accommoda- tion occupied by the assessee, to such extent as may be prescribed   having regard to the area or place in which such accommodation is situate and other relevant considerations.

                Explanation.—For the removal of doubts, it is hereby declared that nothing contained in this clause shall apply in a case where—

      (a)  the residential accommodation occupied by the assessee is owned by him ; or

      (b)  the assessee has not actually incurred expenditure on payment of rent (by whatever name called) in respect of the residential accommodation occupied by him ;

 

Extract of Income Tax Rules 1962

PART II

DETERMINATION OF INCOME

A.—Salaries

Limits for the purposes of section 10(13A).

2A. The amount which is not to be included in the total income of an assessee in respect of the special allowance referred to in clause (13A) of section 10 shall be—

          (a)  the actual amount of such allowance received by the assessee in respect of the relevant period; or

          (b)  the amount by which the expenditure actually incurred by the assessee in payment of rent in respect of residential accommodation occupied by him exceeds one-tenth of the amount of salary due to the assessee in respect of the relevant period; or

             (c)  an amount equal to—

       (i)  where such accommodation is situate at Bombay, Calcutta, Delhi or Madras, one-half of the amount of salary due to the assessee in respect of the relevant period; and

      (ii)  where such accommodation is situate at any other place, two-fifth of the amount of salary due to the assessee in respect of the relevant period,

 

whichever is the least.

Explanation : In this rule—

           (i)  “salary” shall have the meaning assigned to it in clause (h) of rule 2 of Part A of the Fourth Schedule;

          (ii)  “relevant period” means the period during which the said accommodation was occupied by the assessee during the previous year.

 

 

3. If the answer to first question is yes, then for how many years will my UK income continue to be taxable in India? My understanding is that I can claim credit for the tax already paid in UK while arriving at tax liability in India, correct?

 

Reply: Taxability in India of Salary (Income) earned in UK depends on your residential status in India. If you are likely to stay outside India for more than 183 days in up coming financial years.You shall be termed as Not resident in  India for all these years and so no tax in India.

 

Further, for F.Y. 2009-10, as you have already burdened with Tax at UK by way of withholding tax, you shall be entitled to relief by way of Elimination of double Taxation which can be understand from Article 24 (2) of Indo UK DTAA.

 

Extract of Indo-UK DTAA

 

ARTICLE 24 Elimination of double taxation - 1. Subject to the provisions of the law of the United Kingdom regarding the allowance as a credit against United Kingdom tax of tax payable in a territory outside the United Kingdom (which shall not affect the general principle hereof):

  (a)  Indian tax payable under the laws of India and in accordance with the provisions of this Convention, whether directly or by deduction, on profits, income or chargeable gains from sources within India (excluding, in the case of a dividend, tax payable in respect of the profits out of which the dividend is paid) shall be allowed as a credit against any United Kingdom tax computed by reference to the same profits, income or chargeable gains by reference to which the Indian tax is computed.

  (b)  In the case of a dividend paid by a company which is a resident of India to a company which is a resident of the United Kingdom and which controls directly or indirectly at least 10 per cent of the voting power in the company paying the dividend, the credit shall take into account in [addition to any Indian tax for which credit may be allowed under the provisions of sub-paragraph (a) of this paragraph] the Indian tax payable by the company in respect of the profits out of which such dividend is paid.

2. Subject to the provisions of the law of India regarding the allowance as a credit against Indian tax of tax paid in a territory outside India (which shall not affect the general principle hereof), the amount of the United Kingdom tax paid, under the laws of the United Kingdom and in accordance with the provisions of this Convention, whether directly or by deduction, by a resident of India, in respect of income from sources within the United Kingdom which has been subjected to tax both in India and the United Kingdom shall be allowed as a credit against the Indian tax payable in respect of such income but in an amount not exceeding that proportion of Indian tax which such income bears to the entire income chargeable to Indian tax.

For the purposes of the credit referred to in this paragraph, where the resident of India is a company, by which surtax is payable, the credit to be allowed against Indian tax shall be allowed in the first instance against the income-tax payable by the company in India and, as to the balance, if any, against the surtax payable by it in India.

 

Do revert for further clarification.

 

Best Regards

Juzer

 

Dear Juzer, I would like to begin with a big thanks to you. Let me also tell you that your response was more than what I would have expected from a senior CA.

You are correct with your first point. I arrived in UK on 30-Jan-2010. My total stay for the year ending 31-Mar-2010 works out to 61 days and hence, as you have highlighted, as per Article 16(2) of DTAA, I don’t need to pay tax for this period in UK. The same has happened and my company did not deduct any tax from my salary for the two months, Feb 2010 and Mar 2010. The same is reflected in my P-60 (UK) form (equivalent to Form-16 in India), provided by my employer.

In summary, I would need to pay tax on my 2 months (Feb and Mar 2010) UK salary income in India, correct?

I got your second point that I can claim HRA for the rent paid by me here in UK. I understand that I would need to do the calculations as per IT Act (options listed by you) and choose the least beneficiary option L

As mentioned above, since there has not been any tax outflow in UK for the two month period, there does not arise any question of claiming credit in India.

I am still in UK (and would continue for at least another 6 months), and hence, for the current year (i.e. year ending 31-Mar-2011), my resident status becomes NRI AND I don’t need to pay tax in India on my UK salary income, correct?

Thanks a LOT!! I really appreciate your detailed reply and providing references to the relevant sections.

 

Dear Girish


Tnx for all appreciation.


Plz find below response to your queries.


In summary, I would need to pay tax on my 2 months (Feb and Mar 2010) UK salary income in India, correct?


Ans. Yes


I am still in UK (and would continue for at least another 6 months), and hence, for the current year (i.e. year ending 31-Mar-2011), my resident status becomes NRI AND I don’t need to pay tax in India on my UK salary income, correct?


Ans. For F.Y. 2010-11, No taxes to be paid in India but for F.Y. 2011-12, if your physical stay in India for period starting from 01-04-11 till the day you return to India is 60 days or more, you shall be liable to tax on your UK Salary Income. Rest shall be Mutatis mutandis.


Also, if you are resident in India for F.Y. 2011-12, you shall be claiming benefit in UK on account of DTAA Article 16 subject to fulfillment of conditions.


Do revert for further clarifications.


Best Regards

Juzer

Thanks Juzer. I think the best part of your reply was that I dont need to pay any tax for the current year. I got other points of your reply for the next year taxability based on the resident status.

Originally posted by : Girish

Hello, I work for an Indian IT company and was transferred to its UK subsidiary on work visa. I came to UK on 30-Jan-2010 and have been getting paid salary in UK and the indian salary is completely stopped. Tax is deducted on my salary in UK. My questions:

1. While computing my income tax liability for the period Apr 2009 - Mar 2010, will the income earned in UK be added to the taxable income in India for the said period?

2. If the answer to above question is yes, can I claim HRA (for the rent paid by me in UK)?

3. If the answer to first question is yes, then for how many years will my UK income continue to be taxable in India? My understanding is that I can claim credit for the tax already paid in UK while arriving at tax liability in India, correct?

Any help would be highly appreciated. Thanks.

You are correct with your first point. I arrived in UK on 30-Jan-2010. My total stay for the year ending 31-Mar-2010 works out to 61 days and hence, as you have highlighted, as per Article 16(2) of DTAA, I don’t need to pay tax for this period in UK. The same has happened and my company did not deduct any tax from my salary for the two months, Feb 2010 and Mar 2010. The same is reflected in my P-60 (UK) form (equivalent to Form-16 in India), provided by my employer.

++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++

 

what is the basic question after both posts by .......Girish? 

As per dtaa provisions DTAA provisions will prevail over the Incometax Act,1961...

SO AS UR TAX IS DEDUCTED AT SOURSE IN UK,,U will enjoy the rebate over ur foreign income .......for that u hav to calculate incometax on all incomes incl uk salary and also cal.tds on ur uk salary..in both w.e is lower is ur tax credit and rest is ur tax to be paid in india

Originally posted by : U S Sharma




Originally posted by : Girish






Hello, I work for an Indian IT company and was transferred to its UK subsidiary on work visa. I came to UK on 30-Jan-2010 and have been getting paid salary in UK and the indian salary is completely stopped. Tax is deducted on my salary in UK. My questions:

1. While computing my income tax liability for the period Apr 2009 - Mar 2010, will the income earned in UK be added to the taxable income in India for the said period?

2. If the answer to above question is yes, can I claim HRA (for the rent paid by me in UK)?

3. If the answer to first question is yes, then for how many years will my UK income continue to be taxable in India? My understanding is that I can claim credit for the tax already paid in UK while arriving at tax liability in India, correct?

Any help would be highly appreciated. Thanks.






You are correct with your first point. I arrived in UK on 30-Jan-2010. My total stay for the year ending 31-Mar-2010 works out to 61 days and hence, as you have highlighted, as per Article 16(2) of DTAA, I don’t need to pay tax for this period in UK. The same has happened and my company did not deduct any tax from my salary for the two months, Feb 2010 and Mar 2010. The same is reflected in my P-60 (UK) form (equivalent to Form-16 in India), provided by my employer.

++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++

 

what is the basic question after both posts by .......Girish? 

 Mr Sharma, Thanks for taking time to reply on my post. Let me explain the two statements highlighted by you and my original query. BOTH the statements mentioned by me are correct and not contradictory:

My company deducts tax at source (simialr practice as followed in India). Important part to understand is that tax is deducted ONLY if there is any tax liability and not otherwise.

For the salary of Feb and March 2010 there has not been any deduction simply because there is no tax due on that income. (You should know this part better but I am making an educated guess here), EITHER for the fiscal year my two months salary does not come in the taxable income limit OR as per DTAA Article 16(2), for the relevant fiscal year my total stay in UK has been less than mentioned in there (i.e. 61 days is less than the limit mentioned in paragraph 2 of Article 16 of DTAA). Refer post from Juzer for the relevant DTAA article text.

My company has deducted tax from my April 2010 onwards income.

Now my original query was whether the two months of UK salary income (Feb & Mar 2010) is taxable in India? Hope it clarifies

Please discard this post, posted multiple times by mistake...my bad

Please discard this post, posted multiple times by mistake...my bad

Originally posted by : Maulik

As per dtaa provisions DTAA provisions will prevail over the Incometax Act,1961...

SO AS UR TAX IS DEDUCTED AT SOURSE IN UK,,U will enjoy the rebate over ur foreign income .......for that u hav to calculate incometax on all incomes incl uk salary and also cal.tds on ur uk salary..in both w.e is lower is ur tax credit and rest is ur tax to be paid in india

 Maulik - You have not supplied any references to support your viewpoint, and it does not look to be correct anyways. Please refer above replies from Juzer where he has provided the actual references to DTAA article applicable and its text. I can see it being clearly mentioned in there that the for salary income, the tax liability arises only in the contracting state in which actual employment is exercised (and exceptions to this rule in Article 16(2)). Please refer above replies and if you think otherwise, provide the references to relevant sections/articles applicable to justify your viewpoint.

Hi Juzer,

Im working in Switzerland and left from india on 29th Sep 2010 and landed here on 30th Sep 2010.

1) I left India on 29th Sep 2010 and landed in Swiss on 30th Sep 2010 - Total count my stay in india is 182 days still Im eligible to pay tax.
 
2) If yes, actually my employer deducted 30% flat tax on my Swiss salary.  (I get my salary from india and from indian company)
      it should be 30% flat or some other figure ?
 


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